In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.
Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3
Answer: d
Explanation
(a) The meditation of the Buddha
(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon
(c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana
Answer: a
Explanation:
In early aniconic Buddhist iconography (found in historic sites like Sanchi and Bharhut), artists did not depict the Buddha in human form. Instead, they used symbolic representations. An empty seat or throne primarily represents the meditation of the Buddha (specifically his seat under the Bodhi tree where he attained enlightenment).
Why the other options are incorrect:
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
Only pair 3 (Parushni : Ravi) is correctly matched.
Here is the evaluation of each pair:
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
The correct answer option is that statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
The incorrect pair is 2. Udyanjeral : Chola.
Incorrectly Matched Pair
Correctly Matched Pairs
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose won the 1939 Tripuri Congress presidential election by defeating Gandhi’s preferred candidate, Pattabhi Sitaramayya. However, he failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi. The old guard (right-wing) of the Congress, backed by Gandhi, refused to cooperate with him, ultimately forcing his resignation.
Statement 2 is correct: The Congress Left was deeply disunited during this crisis. Instead of standing firmly as a consolidated faction behind Bose, different leftist groups pursued conflicting agendas, which isolated Bose within the leadership structure.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Communists (as part of the Left Consolidated Committee) initially supported Bose in his radical anti-imperialist endeavours inside the Congress, though they later distanced themselves from him when he formally split away and the international political scenario shifted with World War II. Therefore, a blanket statement that they did not support his endeavours is inaccurate.
Statement 4 is correct: Key socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan (representing the Congress Socialist Party) and M.N. Roy explicitly preferred to maintain Congress unity. They felt that dividing the primary anti-colonial front (INC) right before an impending global war would weaken the freedom struggle, leading them to withdraw active support from Bose's factional defiance
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer: a
Explanation:
Why Statement 1 is Incorrect
Immediately following the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British moved aggressively to dismantle the power of the local aristocrats. The taluqdars were disarmed and their forts were completely destroyed. They were strictly forbidden from keeping private armies, armed retainers, or maintaining fortified bases. Additionally, while they were heavily dispossessed, they did not lose their entire estates; their landholding dropped from roughly 67% of Awadh's villages down to 38% under the initial settlement.
Why Statement 2 is Correct
The first British land policy introduced in the region was the Summary Settlement of 1856. This revenue system was fundamentally built on the official British assumption that the taluqdars were interlopers (outsiders) who lacked any permanent, historical, or legal stakes in the land. The colonial administration claimed that these landlords had secured their estates purely through force, coercion, and fraud during the decline of the Nawabi rule.
Why Statement 3 is Correct
British officials operated under the economic philosophy that removing middlemen would optimize governance and revenue. They believed that by bypassing and removing the taluqdars, they could settle revenue assessments directly with the actual cultivators and peasants. The British argued this would protect the primary producers from feudal exploitation while simultaneously diverting a massive chunk of agricultural surplus straight into East India Company treasuries
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
All statements (1, 2, and 3) support the assertion, meaning the correct choice is typically "1, 2 and 3" (or "All of the above").
(a) Agra Gharana
(b) Gwalior Gharana
(c) Patiala Gharana
(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
Answer: d
Explanation:
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was an eminent Indian classical vocalist who belonged to the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. He received his rigorous training under Ustad Alladiya Khan's sons, Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan, which deeply shaped his unique style and mastery over complex, rare ragas (Anwat ragas).
(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Arthashastra
Answer: b
Explanation:
Vedic Roots: While the Rig Veda frequently invokes Kshetrapati ("Lord of the field") to bless agriculture, ploughing, and cattle, the specific feminine counterpart Kshetra-patni appears in the Atharva Veda (specifically AV-S II.12.1).
Evolution of Meaning: In early Vedic agricultural hymns, the term referred to a protective deity or personification presiding over fertile land.
Philosophical Transition: In later texts like the Bhagavad Gita, the underlying word Kshetra shifts from a literal piece of land to a profound philosophical concept denoting the physical body or the entire material world, while the soul is identified as the Kshetrajna ("knower of the field")
(a) Nat Bhairavi
(b) Kamavardhini
(c) Hanumatodi
(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam
Answer: d
Explanation:
In Carnatic music, Dheera Shankarabharanam is the 29th Melakarta raga. It uses all seven notes in their basic, unaltered form (Shuddha Swaras in the Western sense, or all major notes). This precisely matches Raga Bilawal (or Bilawal Thaat) of Hindustani classical music, which serves as the foundational, all-natural major scale. Both are equivalent to the Western C Major scale
(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b) Providing support to Indian importers
(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Hilton-Young Commission (1926): Formally known as the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, it recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s. 6d. (1 shilling and 6 pence) per rupee, instead of the ratio favored by Indian nationalists (1s. 4d.).
The British Motive: The overvalued exchange rate made British imports cheaper in India and reduced the rupee cost of "Home Charges" (colonial administrative costs, pensions, and interest on sterling debt) transferred to the UK.
Remittances & Creditworthiness: Maintaining this specific fixed rate ensured that the colonial government could smoothly manage these unilateral remittances back to London whileassuring foreign investors of British India's stable fiscal capacity and creditworthiness to service its external debt.
Impact on India: This high rate artificially inflated the price of Indian goods abroad, which harmed Indian agricultural exporters and local cotton manufacturers by making their products uncompetitive
Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.
The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.
The above statements have been associated with which of the following ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Explanation:
Transition to money economy: The first statement highlights the specific terminology used for different denominations of money (kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika) found in early Buddhist (Pali) texts. The second statement corroborates this with thousands of physical, punch-marked silver and copper coins excavated from various historical sites. Together, this clear transition from barter to standard currency directly represents the transition to a money economy.
Emergence of urban life: In ancient Indian history, the advent of punch-marked coinage (around the 6th–5th centuries BCE) is inextricably linked to the "Second Urbanisation"—the period that saw the rise of the Mahajanapadas, major cities, complex trade routes, and specialized urban guilds. A money economy is a core structural prerequisite for maintaining sophisticated city life and administrative states. Therefore, these statements are also classic evidence used by historians to trace the emergence of urban life in northern India
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: b
Explanation:
(a) Deva (gods)
(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
(c) Manushya (humans)
(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)
Answer: b
Explanation:
According to Jain philosophy, a worldly soul wanders endlessly through a cycle of rebirths across four realms of existence, known as the Four Gatis (Chau Gati). These four main states of existence are:
(a) A joyous folk dance
(b) Buddha in a meditative pose
(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Hallisalasya (also known as Hallisaka) painting inside Cave 4 of the Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh portrays a joyous, secular folk dance. The mural features a group of female dancers and musicians moving in a circle, and it is historically considered an early precursor to the Rasa Lila
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The earliest epigraphic (inscriptional) evidence of the decimal place-value system within India is found in the Mankani plates of Taralasvamin from Gujarat, which are dated to Kalachuri Year 346, corresponding to AD 595–596. Although some epigraphists debate the authenticity or absolute proof of certain early plates, this specific record is universally cited in historical examinations of ancient Indian scientific developments as the earliest epigraphic trace.
Statement 2 is correct: While the decimal place-value system was known and used by mathematicians much earlier (such as Aryabhata), its adoption in official public inscriptions took centuries to completely standardise. By the ninth century AD, the use of the place-value system and decimal notation became widespread and general in inscriptions across all regions of India.
Statement 3 is correct: Interestingly, some of the most definitive early physical evidence of the place-value system actually appears outside the Indian mainland. Sanskrit and Old Khmer inscriptions found in Southeast Asia (such as the Sambor inscription in Cambodia and others in Sumatra/Java) explicitly use decimal place-values and the symbol for zero as early as the seventh century AD (specifically, dates ranging from 604 to 683 CE).
There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement I → Inference 1
Statement II → Inference 2
Statement III → Inference 3
(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Triggered in the Bardoli taluka of Gujarat when the British colonial government announced a 22% hike in land revenue. Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the peasants successfully launched a no-tax movement forcing the government to roll back the excessive assessment.
Eka Movement (1921–1922): Formed in the northern districts of Avadh (U.P.), the primary grievance of the peasants was the exorbitant extraction of rent by landlords and taluqdars, which was often 50% higher than the legally recorded rent.
Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of wells.
Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
Therefore, when grouped together to justify the full scope of agricultural expansion and draft power, (b) 1, 2 and 3 is the intended correct combination.
(a) Ecuador
(b) Peru
(c) Bolivia
(d) Colombia
Answer: (a) Ecuador
Explanation
The Tungurahua Volcano UNESCO Global Geopark in Ecuador spans nearly 2,397 sq. km across the Andes Mountains and is named after the active Tungurahua Stratovolcano, popularly called the “Throat of Fire” in the Quichua language. The geopark preserves over 417 million years of volcanic and glacial history, featuring deep canyons, waterfalls, crystal-clear rivers, and therapeutic hot springs. The famous town of Baños de Agua Santa, located at the volcano’s base, is known for adventure tourism, mineral-rich thermal baths, and the iconic “La Casa del Árbol” swing viewpoint. Managed across five municipalities and two provinces, the geopark reflects a successful balance between geotourism, cultural heritage preservation, environmental awareness, and community resilience. UNESCO recognized the site for its exceptional geological heritage, active volcanic landscape, and the ability of local communities to sustain a diversified economy despite recurrent volcanic activity.
https://science.nasa.gov/earth/earth-observatory/eruption-of-tungurahua-7215/
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/madhav-national-park-45
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/andaman-nicobar-islands
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation
NOTE: 2025 marked 10 years of Sagarmala Programme
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/sagarmala-project-44
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 3 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Moidams did not act as army fortresses. They were not defensive or military structures. Instead, they were funerary monuments built as mound burial sites using earth, bricks, and stones, primarily in Assam’s Charaideo region under the Tai-Ahom dynasty.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Moidams were not recreation centres of royals and nobles. There is no historical or archaeological evidence supporting any leisure or recreational function. They were sacred burial structures associated with royal funerary practices.
Statement 3 is correct: Moidams were burial grounds of the royals and nobles of the Tai-Ahom dynasty. They enshrine the mortal remains of Ahom royalty, often buried along with their paraphernalia. After the 18th century, cremated remains were also entombed in Moidams at Charaideo following the adoption of Hindu cremation practices.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Moidams were not battle drill centres. The Ahom military system functioned separately, with organised infantry, navy, artillery, and guerrilla warfare traditions, but Moidams had no role in military training or combat preparation.
Do you know?
During its 46th session in New Delhi, the World Heritage Committee officially inscribed the 'Moidams – the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty' on the UNESCO World Heritage List.
These structures represent the late medieval (13th–19th century CE) mound burial tradition of the Tai-Ahom dynasty of Assam. They were primarily constructed using earth, bricks, and stone, typically forming a mound of earth often enclosed by a brick or stone wall. Located mainly in Charaideo district of Assam, Moidams serve as the resting place of the Ahom royal families, enshrining the mortal remains of royalty who were often buried along with their paraphernalia. After the 18th century, the Ahom rulers adopted Hindu cremation practices and began entombing the cremated bones and ashes in Maidams at Charaideo. These burial systems are considered comparable to the royal tombs of ancient China and the Pyramids of Egypt. The Ahom Kingdom, established in 1228 in the Brahmaputra valley by Chaolung Sukapha, ruled Assam for nearly 600 years until 1826 (Treaty of Yandaboo). The kingdom had a structured administrative system based on paiks (forced labour) and was organized into khels (clans controlling villages). The Ahoms maintained a strong military system comprising infantry, navy, artillery, elephantry, cavalry, and spies, and were known for their expertise in guerrilla warfare and riverine military tactics, including the historic Battle of Saraighat (1671) led by Lachit Borphukan, where they defeated the Mughal forces.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/moidams
Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?
(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation
Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life.
Explanation
The FAO Strategic Framework 2022-31
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Strategic Framework 2022-31 provides a ten-year roadmap designed to support the UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development amidst escalating global risks, macroeconomic uncertainties, and the compounding challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic. At its core, the framework aims to drive a fundamental transformation toward more efficient, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable agri-food systems. This mission is organized around a core systemic narrative known as the "four betters":
These four pillars serve as an interconnected organizing principle to leave no one behind, while directly contributing to SDG 1 (No Poverty), SDG 2 (Zero Hunger), and SDG 10 (Reduced Inequalities).
To turn this vision into tangible results, the FAO has moved away from bespoke, isolated targets and transitioned to a common language by identifying twenty Programme Priority Areas (PPAs). Guided by strategic foresight that monitors 18 critical socio-economic and environmental drivers—such as climate change, natural resource degradation, and market concentration—the FAO will implement its interventions across all programs by deploying four cross-cutting "accelerators":
Ultimately, the framework outlines a shift toward a "One FAO" business model. This model is designed to optimize the organization's normative strengths, build transformative partnerships, and leverage innovative financing to effectively navigate an era of increasing risk and vulnerability.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is the world’s largest permanent desert lake. It is also the fourth-largest lake in Africa and is located in the East African Rift Valley system, making it a unique arid-zone lake with significant ecological and geological importance.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Lake Turkana is not located in South Sudan nor along the Sahara desert margin. It is situated mainly in northern Kenya, with its northern tip extending into southern Ethiopia, within the Eastern arm of the East African Rift System.
Statement 3 is correct: Lake Turkana is a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its outstanding geological and ecological value. It is also famously known as the “Jade Sea” because of its distinctive greenish-blue (jade) waters caused by its mineral-rich, alkaline nature.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/nakura-dam
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/unesco-list-of-world-heritage-sites-in-danger
(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project
Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
Explanation
The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project (Meghalaya) is India’s first community-based REDD+ programme and the first in India to receive Plan Vivo certification. It began in 2011 and focuses on avoided deforestation and assisted natural regeneration of around 27,000 hectares of cloud forest in the East Khasi Hills region. The project also supports community livelihoods, women-led microfinance, forest fire control, and biodiversity conservation in a globally significant biodiversity hotspot.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Statement I is correct: India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a key policy document submitted to the UNFCCC in 2022. It lays out India’s long-term pathway toward low-carbon development and achieving net-zero emissions by 2070, while balancing development needs, energy security, and climate resilience.
Statement II is correct: India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4), submitted in December 2024, reported an approximately 7.93% reduction in total greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, as per official government data released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
Statement III is incorrect: Climate-resilient development (CRD) does not depend only on quick and short-term emission reductions. As highlighted by the IPCC and India’s climate policy approach, CRD requires a balanced mix of mitigation, adaptation, and sustainable development, with both short-term actions and long-term structural transformations. Focusing only on short-term emission cuts is insufficient for long-term resilience.
Relationship analysis:
Thus, relationships 1 and 2 are correct, making (b) the right choice.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/indias-long-term-low-emission-development-strategy
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/indias-emissions-inventory-efforts-at-mitigation
Q32. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Western Hoolock Gibbon is India’s only ape species and is strictly arboreal (tree-dwelling), using a unique locomotion method called brachiation, where it swings hand-over-hand between branches.
Let’s evaluate the statements:
Statement 1 – Correct
The Western Hoolock Gibbon is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. It is found in Northeast India, and sanctuaries like the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary (Assam) provide important habitat protection.
Statement 2 – Correct
They are specialized for brachiation, which allows them to swing efficiently between trees in the forest canopy. This is their primary mode of movement.
Statement 3 – Incorrect
They do not have a strong and heavy build like gorillas. In fact, gibbons are lightweight, slender, and highly agile, adapted for life in trees, not ground-based strength.
Q33. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
Mangroves do not store freshwater; rather, they grow in saline and brackish water conditions. They are not suitable for freshwater-dependent crops like paddy. While some coastal regions such as the pokkali fields of Kerala or bheris of the Sundarbans practice traditional salt-tolerant farming near estuaries, this is not because mangroves create freshwater conditions. In fact, clearing mangroves for agriculture worsens soil conditions and increases vulnerability to coastal hazards.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:
Mangroves do not have salt-sensitive roots; they are halophytes (salt-tolerant plants). They survive by filtering and excreting salt. Moreover, converting mangrove ecosystems into freshwater or even aquaculture zones is ecologically damaging and is a major cause of mangrove loss, not a benefit derived from them.
Statement 3 is Correct:
Mangroves act as powerful natural bio-shields, with dense root networks that absorb tidal energy and reduce the impact of cyclones, storm surges, and even tsunamis. They also support rural livelihoods by providing fuelwood, timber, honey, fisheries nursery grounds, crab collection, and other ecosystem services, making them vital for both protection and sustenance in coastal regions.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/mangroves-41
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/sundarbbans
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/mangroves-2
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/mangroves
Q34. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
Vizhinjam International Seaport does not function exclusively as a domestic cargo hub. In fact, it is India’s first deep-water transshipment port, designed to handle international container traffic. Its core objective is to reduce dependence on foreign transshipment hubs like Colombo and Singapore, not to eliminate foreign collaborations or focus only on domestic coastal shipping.
Statement 2 is Incorrect:
The port is not primarily designed for passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping. While cruise facilities may exist as a supplementary feature, the strategic focus of Vizhinjam is on container transshipment and global cargo movement, not tourism or heritage branding.
Statement 3 is Correct:
Vizhinjam leverages its natural deep draft (18–20 meters) and strategic location just off major global shipping routes. This allows it to accommodate large vessels, reduce India’s dependence on foreign transshipment ports, and help retain revenue within the country. It is a structural shift in India’s maritime logistics policy aimed at positioning India as a regional maritime hub.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/vizhinjam-port-23
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/vizhinjam-port-project
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/vizhinjam-port
Q35. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:
Select the answer from the following:
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Indus
(c) Sutlej
(d) Teesta
Answer: (c) Sutlej
Explanation:
The Sutlej River is a major tributary of the Indus River system. It originates from the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Rakshastal in China, then flows through India (Himachal Pradesh and Punjab) and enters Pakistan, thereby passing through three countries, satisfying statement 2.
It is also an example of an antecedent drainage system, meaning the river existed before the uplift of the Himalayas. As the mountains rose, the Sutlej maintained its course by cutting deep gorges through the rising terrain rather than being diverted.
The river is highly significant for irrigation, especially in north-west India and Pakistan, where it feeds extensive canal systems like the Sirhind Canal system, supporting intensive agriculture in Punjab and adjoining regions.
Importantly, the Sutlej does not form distributaries, because it does not develop a deltaic network before joining the Indus system.
Why other options are incorrect (with specifics)
The Indus River also originates in the Tibetan Plateau and flows through China, India, and Pakistan, and it is a major irrigation lifeline. However, before reaching the Arabian Sea in Pakistan, the Indus River splits into a complex delta system with about 17 active and abandoned distributaries. Prominent active distributaries include Hajamro, Ghorabari, Piti, Mouthani, Juna, and Khaur, forming the Indus River Delta, which directly violates statement 4.
The Brahmaputra River flows through China, India, and Bangladesh and is also antecedent in nature. However, it develops a highly braided channel system and distributaries in its lower course, especially in Bangladesh, disqualifying it due to statement 4.
The Teesta River flows through exactly two countries: India and Bangladesh. Originating from Himalayan glaciers in Sikkim (India), it travels about 414 km southward through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh, where it eventually merges with the Brahmaputra River system, not flowing through three countries and thus failing statement 2.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/satluj-river
Q36. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its borders with the highest number of other Indian states. It is bordered by 8 states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar) and 1 Union Territory (Delhi).
Statement 2 is incorrect: West Bengal shares the longest international land border among all Indian states, spanning 2,217 km along the India-Bangladesh border. While Rajasthan shares a extensive border with Pakistan (1,037 km), it is significantly shorter than West Bengal's boundary with Bangladesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sikkim is not the only state that shares its boundary with just one other Indian state. There are actually two such states in India:
Q37. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The arrival of the Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Pangti village, Nagaland, is celebrated globally as one of the most successful community-led conservation stories. In the early 2010s, tens of thousands of these raptors were being hunted for meat daily. Through aggressive, sustained conservation campaigns led by local communities, NGOs, and the forest department, the hunting was completely stopped. Today, the village acts as a safe haven, earning Nagaland the title of "Falcon Capital of the World."
Statement 2 is incorrect: While scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like satellite radio transmitters) to study and map their migration routes, these technologies do not "guide" the birds back. Migratory birds rely entirely on their intrinsic biological mechanisms—such as the Earth's magnetic field, the position of the sun/stars, and genetic memory—to navigate their journey.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Amur Falcons have not adapted to permanent residency in India. They remain strictly long-distance migratory birds. They breed in East Asia (Siberia and Mongolia), fly to Northeast India (specifically Nagaland and Manipur) as a brief autumn stopover to fatten up on termites, and then embark on an incredible non-stop flight across the Arabian Sea to winter in Southern Africa.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/amur-falcon-habitat-features-diet-iucn-status
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/amur-falcon
Q38. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas is not an objective of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). The RAD framework is designed specifically to move away from monoculture systems. It promotes diversified Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) that combine crops, horticulture, livestock, fisheries, and agro-forestry. The aim is to improve income stability, risk diversification, and climate resilience, especially in vulnerable rainfed regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions is not part of the RAD objectives. The initiative is focused exclusively on rainfed agriculture, not irrigated farming systems. Its goal is to strengthen rainfed farming sustainability through resource efficiency, diversification, and resilience-building, rather than promoting any specific crop in irrigated areas.
Statement 3 is correct: Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) is a central objective of the RAD initiative. It adopts a watershed-plus approach and promotes cluster-based development models that integrate multiple farming components. This helps improve productivity, ensures income diversification, and reduces climate-related risks in rainfed agricultural systems.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-editorials/why-does-india-need-climate-resilient-agriculture
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/impact-of-climate-change-on-farmers
Q39. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk significantly enhances its position in the global textile market. As per PIB, this certification assures that the product is free from harmful substances and meets strict international safety and quality standards. This enables Indian exporters to access high-end global markets, especially those that prioritise eco-friendly, chemical-free, and sustainable textiles.
Statement 2 is correct: The certification also confirms that Eri Silk complies with international safety, environmental, and quality benchmarks. This compliance increases consumer confidence and improves acceptance in premium eco-conscious markets worldwide, aligning the product with global demand for ethical and sustainable fashion materials.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/eri-silk
Q40. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically vital maritime chokepoint that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the wider Indian Ocean. Any country whose coastline lies exclusively within the landlocked expanse of the Persian Gulf relies completely on this narrow strait to access open global waters.
Country Analysis
Thus, only Bahrain (1) and Qatar (3) are Persian Gulf littoral nations dependent on the Strait of Hormuz, making option (b) the correct choice.
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/strait-of-hormuz
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/us-initiates-naval-blockade-of-strait-of-hormuz
41. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
|
List I (INTERPOL Notice) |
List II (Description) |
|
A. Silver Notice |
1. To seek information on unidentified bodies |
|
B. Blue Notice |
2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation |
|
C. Black Notice
|
3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety |
|
D. Green Notice |
4. To identify and trace criminal assets |
Code :
|
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
(a) |
3 |
1 |
2 |
4 |
|
(b) |
3 |
2 |
1 |
4 |
|
(c) |
4 |
2 |
1 |
3 |
|
(d) |
4 |
1 |
2 |
3 |
Answer: C
Explanation:
Silver Notice — 4. To identify and trace criminal assets
The Silver Notice is a newer specialized alert designed to help member countries share intelligence to locate, monitor, and trace illicit wealth and laundered assets (such as bank accounts, real estate, and digital assets).
Blue Notice — 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities
Also known as an enquiry notice, it helps gather intelligence on an individual's location or background regarding a criminal investigation, often before formal charges are filed.
Black Notice — 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
This notice is issued globally to help identify deceased individuals whose remains have been found but whose identities cannot be established locally.
Green Notice — 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities
This serves as an alert for individuals who have committed criminal offenses and are considered a persistent potential threat to public safety in other jurisdictions.
Sources for Answer:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interpol_notice?utm
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/silver-notice
Q42. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience) is an institutional coordination platform established by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) to promote synergies, cross-collaboration, and shared scientific outcomes among various environmental bodies without setting up any new physical infrastructure or increasing manpower.
Statement 1 is Correct: The Ecosystem Survey and Analysis vertical is led by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata. This vertical focuses on surveying and analyzing floral and faunal resources, utilizing the expertise of organizations like the BSI and Zoological Survey of India (ZSI).
Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Research and Management of Ecosystem Services vertical is led by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, not the Central Zoo Authority (CZA). The ICFRE is the apex body for forestry research, making it the designated lead for ecosystem management and research services. The CZA primarily regulates zoos and is not the lead for this broad research vertical.
Statement 3 is Correct: The Capacity Development Support vertical is led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal. The IIFM specializes in management education and training in the forestry sector, making it the natural lead for capacity building and human resource development under the platform.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2213829®=3&lang=1
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/nirantar-platform-explained
Q43. The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2209260®=3&lang=2
Q44. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHRUV64 Microprocessor: Key Facts
Statement 1 is Correct: The DIR-V Programme explicitly lists DHRUV64 as the third chip in its fabrication sequence, following THEJAS32 and THEJAS64.
Statement 2 is Correct: Official announcements confirm DHRUV64's status as the first indigenous chip to reach the 1.0 GHz speed benchmark with a 64-bit dual-core architecture.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=156505&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=1
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/national-technology-day-2026-history-significance-theme
Q45. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) officially designates the new standard as IS 19445:2025. This standard sets the Performance Evaluation and Requirements for bomb disposal systems.
Statement 2 is Correct: The standard creates a unified framework for testing and certification. This uniformity directly improves interoperability across different agencies (like police, paramilitary, and defense forces) by ensuring all equipment meets the same benchmarks.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), a DRDO lab, developed this standard. However, it was created in collaboration with Indian stakeholders (like the Ministry of Home Affairs), not with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2209191®=3&lang=1
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/bureau-of-indian-standards-bis
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2209191®=3&lang=2
Q46. 'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X' :
(a) Michel H. Devoret
(b) Richard Robson
(c) John Clarke
(d) Joel Mokyr
Answer: C
Explanation:
Other options
Sources for Answer:
https://www.iasgyan.in/tag/nobel-prize-physics-2025
Q47. Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments: Key Facts
Statement 1 is Correct: The four tournaments (Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon, US Open) operate as a unified partnership to coordinate rules, officiating, and strategic growth.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Simply being ranked and over 14 does not guarantee entry. Players must possess a ranking high enough to qualify (top 100-ish) or must secure a Wild Card. Lower-ranked players cannot just "enter."
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The limitation on Wild Cards applies per year (annual limits), not to a player's entire career. A player can receive Wild Cards in multiple different years throughout their career.
Sources for Answer:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grand_Slam_(tennis)
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/australian-open
Q48. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?
(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
(c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement (a) is Correct: CG Power and Industrial Solutions (partnering with Renesas and STARS) locates its OSAT facility in Sanand, Gujarat.
Statement (b) is Correct: Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (TSAT) builds its indigenous semiconductor packaging unit in Morigaon, Assam.
Statement (c) is Incorrect: The HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture (India Chip Pvt. Ltd.) establishes its semiconductor facility in Jewar, Uttar Pradesh (specifically the YEIDA region), not in Madhya Pradesh.
Statement (d) is Correct: SicSem Pvt. Ltd. sets up the country's first Silicon Carbide (SiC) manufacturing plant in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Sources for Answer:
Q49. Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bharat Forecast System (BharatFS): Key Facts
Statement 1 is Correct: The system's primary goal is to provide actionable weather data at the Panchayat cluster level (approx. 6 km resolution), significantly improving upon previous 12 km models.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: IITM Pune, an autonomous institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, created the model, not IIT Delhi.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2220205®=3&lang=1
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/bharat-forecasting-system
Q50. Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong' :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: The film 'Boong' won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Best Children's and Family Film category. This win occurred at the 2026 ceremony in London.
Statement 2 is Correct: Lakshmipriya Devi directed the film. This project marks her directorial debut and tells the story of a young boy in Manipur.
Statement 3 is Correct: 'Boong' stands as the first Indian film to win a BAFTA specifically in the Children's and Family Film category. While Indian talent (like A.R. Rahman and Resul Pookutty) has won BAFTAs previously, and films like Gandhi (a UK co-production) have won Best Film, 'Boong' secured the first victory for an Indian production in this specific genre
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2232861®=3&lang=1
Q51. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sources for Answer:
https://blockchain.gov.in/Home/BlockChain?blockchain=feature
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/blockchain.asp
https://www.iasgyan.in/tag/blockchain-technology
Q52. An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :
(a) Dropshipping Model
(b) Affiliate Revenue Model
(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(d) Agency Revenue Model
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sources for Answer:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drop_shipping https://news.abplive.com/business/what-is-dropshipping-ecommerce-business-strategy-sees-impact-in-india-1660236
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/open-network-for-digital-commerce-40
Q53. Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(c) Access, Usage, and Quality
(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency
Answer: C
Explanation:
RBI Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index): Key Sub-Indices
Sources for Answer:
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/financial-inclusion-index-2025-rbi-report
Q54. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative ?
(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(b) To replace private e-commerce players
(c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
Answer: C
Explanation:
ONDC (Open Network for Digital Commerce) is a Government of India initiative designed to democratize e-commerce by breaking the monopoly of walled-garden platforms like Amazon and Flipkart. Instead of being a single app, it is a decentralized, open-protocol network that allows buyers and sellers to interact seamlessly, regardless of which app they use.
Key Objectives of the ONDC Initiative
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1814143
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/open-network-for-digital-commerce-ondc
Q55. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct ?
(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement (a) is Correct: UPI operates as an instant overlay payment system for commercial bank money. Digital Rupee serves as a legal tender digital equivalent of physical paper currency.
Statement (b) is Correct: UPI transfers require interbank settlement behind the scenes. Digital Rupee transfers directly between digital wallets, achieving instant finality without bank settlement.
Statement (c) is Correct: Commercial banks record all UPI transactions on bank statements. Digital Rupee transactions move anonymously from wallet to wallet, bypassing standard commercial bank ledgers.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/central-bank-digital-currency-31
Q56. Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: Tokenization converts rights to a physical or financial asset (like real estate, gold, or bonds) into a digital token. Issuers manage and trade these tokens securely using blockchain technology.
Statement 2 is Correct: Decentralized networks operate continuously without traditional banking hours. Tokenization provides investors with 24/7 market access, lowers entry barriers, and drives global financial inclusion.
Statement 3 is Correct: Tokenization enables fractional ownership of high-value assets. This allows retail individuals in India to invest small amounts into previously inaccessible, high-growth investment opportunities.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.npci.org.in/blog/understanding-asset-tokenization-to-unlock-digital-asset-potential
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/aadhaar-access-restrictions-and-welfare-exclusion
Q57. A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :
(a) Green Bond
(b) Social Bond
(c) Sustainability Bond
(d) Sovereign Bond
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sustainability Bonds: Issuers combine environmental and social benefits into a single debt instrument. They intentionally align the bond proceeds with both the Green Bond Principles and Social Bond Principles.
Other Options
Sources for Answer:
https://www.oecd.org/en/publications/sustainable-bonds_26726c68-en.html
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/green-security-increasing-need-of-climate-related-fund
Q58. Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
M1xchange has emerged as a galvanising force in financing for Indian MSMEs, fundamentally transforming how micro, small, and medium enterprises access working capital through its innovative Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform. As an RBI-approved digital marketplace, M1xchange has successfully bridged the critical financing gap in the MSME ecosystem.
M1xchange's Role
Sources for Answer:
https://www.m1xchange.com/how-m1xchange-is-revolutionising-msme-financing-in-india/
Q59. Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?
(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
(c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 'Crowding Out Effect' describes a situation where high government borrowing reduces private sector investment.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/crowdingouteffect.asp
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/fiscal-deficit-15
Q60. Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Modern technologies like Artificial Intelligence, robotics, and space exploration use Rare Earth Elements (REEs) extensively for components like magnets, batteries, and electronic displays.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While China dominates global REE mining, the United States and Australia follow as the next largest producers. India has significant reserves but currently contributes a very small share (less than 1%) to global mining production.
Statement 3 is correct: The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025. This mission aims to secure the supply chain and boost domestic production and recycling of critical minerals.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Rare Earth Elements consist of a set of 17 metallic elements, not 13. This group includes the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium.
Sources for Answer:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2120525®=3&lang=2
https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/rare-earth-reserves-in-india
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source: International Union of Aerospace Insurers (IUAI), International Air Transport Association (IATA) MC99 Resource Hub
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source: https://www.crowdfunding.com/, UN Innovation Network Platform, SEBI Crowdfunding Regulation Framework
|
Sl. No. |
Committee |
Objective |
Organization under which it was formed |
|
1. |
R.N. Malhotra Committee |
Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India |
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India |
|
2. |
L.C. Gupta Committee |
Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India |
Securities and Exchange Board of India |
|
3. |
Urjit R. Patel Committee |
Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector |
Reserve Bank of India |
|
4. |
Y.H. Malegam Committee |
Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India |
Reserve Bank of India |
In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Source: Reserve Bank of India Committee Database, SEBI L.C. Gupta Committee Report
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Source: RBI Non-Banking Financial Companies FAQs, DICGC Official Insurance Coverage Rules
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
Source: NITI Aayog National MPI Hub, UNDP Multidimensional Poverty Index Portal
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: FDA Cellular & Gene Therapy Regulations, NCBI Gene Therapy Vectors Hub
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: Stanford Artificial Intelligence Laboratory, MIT Computer Science & AI Lab (CSAIL)
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: IEEE Xplore Radar Absorbing Materials, Defense Technical Information Center (DTIC)
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: ICAO Flight Data Protection Codes
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: Cabinet approves National Green Hydrogen MissionPIBhttps://www.pib.gov.in › PressReleasePage
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: https://www.dronefederation.in/media-hub/swarm-drone-technology-potential-and-threats, DRDO Electronic Warfare Countermeasures
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: https://genomeindia.in/, https://www.genome.gov/human-genome-project
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Source: https://dst.gov.in/national-quantum-mission-nqm, https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2111953®=3&lang=2
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=155043&ModuleId=3®=3&lang=2, https://www.psa.gov.in/mission/national-quantum-mission/26
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ?
(a) Esprit de corps
(b) Equity
(c) Accountability
(d) Delegation
As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
This question presents a classic public administration dilemma involving a conflict between utilitarian majoritarian needs (urban public health) and minority rights (tribal identity, cultural preservation, and land rights).
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
This case study highlights the delicate balance a civil servant must strike between accountability/transparency and procedural propriety/fairness.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :
(a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(b) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
(c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.
This question tests the exact literal definition of "Law" as explicitly laid down in Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution of India.
Let's look at the constitutional text of Article 13(3)(a):
"‘Law’ includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law."
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
(a) All three statements are correct.
(b) There is no correct statement.
(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(d) There is only one correct statement.
This question tests your knowledge of the often-overlooked concluding articles of the Indian Constitution found in Part XXII (Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals). Because all three statements claim that these provisions do not exist, let's disprove them one by one using the actual text of the Constitution:
Since Articles 393, 395, and 394 explicitly cover the content of statements 1, 2, and 3 respectively, all three statements are factually wrong. Therefore, there is no correct statement.
Source: Laxmikanth - 11th Edition
Q81. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament of India enacted the landmark Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act in 2016, not in 2018. While the substantive details mentioned in the statement—such as mandating reservation in education (5%) and employment (4%), along with strict legal guidelines for accessibility and non-discrimination—are perfectly accurate, the incorrect year makes the statement false.
Statement 2 is correct: The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign), launched on December 3, 2015, is a nationwide flagship campaign designed by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). Its precise focus is achieving universal accessibility across the exact three domains mentioned: the built environment, transportation infrastructure, and information and communication technology (ICT) ecosystems.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) operates under the aegis of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. While it is a public sector, not-for-profit Section 8 company dedicated to fostering entrepreneurship and self-employment among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), the administrative ministry listed is factually incorrect
Q82. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) All the statements are correct.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Provisions regarding the administration of Tribal Areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are actually detailed in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, not the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specific areas (like the North-Eastern states and specified Union Territories) are exempt from paying income tax on income earned within those areas or from dividend/interest income.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 243D of the Constitution of India mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). Furthermore, it specifies that at least one-third of the total seats reserved for SCs and STs must be allocated to women belonging to those respective categories
Q83. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Starred questions are those to which a member desires an oral answer in the House, not unstarred questions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unstarred questions are those to which a member desires a written answer, not starred questions.
Statement 3 is correct: Since unstarred questions receive a written reply laid on the table of the House, no supplementary questions can be asked on them. Supplementary questions can only follow oral answers given to starred questions
Q84. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
(a) There are four correct statements.
(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(d) There is no correct statement.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabhafrom among the members of the Committee, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Committee consists of 30 members, but the distribution is 20 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha—the opposite of what was stated.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A Minister is not eligible for election to the Committee. There is no exception for the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The term of office for members of the Committee does not exceed one year, rather than two years
Q85. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Launched in August 2025, Mission Sudarshan Chakra functions as both a "shield and a sword" to strengthen India's Air Defence, Ballistic Missile Defence, and offensive capabilities.
Statement 2 is correct: Focused on strategic autonomy, the mission utilizes indigenous AI and Big Data technologies for rapid and precise defense against threats like drone swarms and hypersonic missiles.
Statement 3 is correct: A key aim is to establish a nationwide security shield over public spaces and population centers by 2035.
Q86. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While 'Maitri Setu' is indeed built over the Feni River, the statement swaps the countries of the respective towns. The 1.9-kilometre bridge actually connects Sabroom in Tripura (India)with Ramgarh (Bangladesh).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Jhulaghat suspension bridge spans the Kali (Mahakali) River and connects India (Uttarakhand) with Nepal, not Myanmar. It serves as a vital cross-border pedestrian link.
Statement 3 is correct: The Mechi bridge successfully spans the trans-boundary Mechi River to link the Panitanki Bypass in West Bengal (India) with Kakarvitta in Nepal. It serves as the terminal connection for Asian Highway 02 (AH02)
Q87. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Section 173(1) of the BNSS, a Zero FIR can be lodged at any police station irrespective of its territorial jurisdiction, but this applies exclusively to cognizable offences. It does not apply to non-cognizable offences, which are dealt with under Section 174 and require a Magistrate's order for police action.
Statement 2 is correct: Section 173(3) of the BNSS introduced a new framework for conducting a preliminary enquiry. For cognizable offences punishable with an imprisonment of 3 years or more but less than 7 years, the Officer-in-Charge may initiate a preliminary enquiry to check for a prima facie case. However, this requires the prior permission of a competent authority (an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police) and must be concluded within 14 days.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Section 173(1) expressly permits information regarding a cognizable offence to be given either orally, in writing, or via electronic communication. If the information is given electronically (e-FIR), it must be signed by the informant within three days to be formally recorded
Q88. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details :
|
Sl. No. |
Organisation |
Function |
Controlling Union Ministry |
|
1 |
Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) |
To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies |
Ministry of Home Affairs |
|
2 |
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) |
To investigate complex corporate frauds |
Ministry of Finance |
|
3 |
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) |
To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy |
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None
Answer: a
Explanation:
Row 1 is incorrectly matched: The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) serves as the nodal agency for gathering economic intelligence and coordination. However, it functions under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Row 2 is incorrectly matched: The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a multi-disciplinary agency established to investigate serious and complex corporate frauds. It functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.
Row 3 is correctly matched: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has the stated motto/vision to "uphold the Constitution of India and law of the land... preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy". It functions under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions(specifically the Department of Personnel and Training)
Q89. Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Answer: d
Explanation:
Q90. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Summit's intellectual framework was actually anchored in three foundational "Sutras" (guiding principles) known as People, Planet, and Progress. The statement incorrectly lists "Planning" instead of "Planet".
Statement 2 is Incorrect: While the Summit did emphasize democratizing AI resources, it acknowledged the "Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI" as a voluntary and non-binding framework, rather than a binding one. A key feature of the Declaration was its reliance on "soft-law" mechanisms that respect national laws without rigid mandates.
Statement 3 is Correct: The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was indeed structured around seven "Chakras" (Pillars). These pillars included:
Q91. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer: a
Explanation:
Q92. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
|
List I (Project Supported by India) |
List II (Country) |
|
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project |
1. Maldives |
|
B. Restoration of Stor Palace |
2. Afghanistan |
|
C. District Hospital at Dickoya |
3. Bhutan |
|
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies |
4. Sri Lanka |
Code :
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
|
(a) |
1 |
4 |
2 |
3 |
|
(b) |
3 |
2 |
4 |
1 |
|
(c) |
3 |
4 |
2 |
1 |
|
(d) |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Answer: b
Explanation:
Q93. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: a
Explanation:
Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets: These are advanced multirole air superiority fighters of Russian origin that are manufactured under license in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) at its Nashik facility.
T-90 MK-III Tanks: The T-90 (codenamed "Bhishma" in India) is a third-generation main battle tank. While it is a Russian design, India indigenously manufactures variants like the MK-III and Bhishma under license at the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) in Avadi, Chennai.
Akula Class Submarine: These are nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs) designed and built in Russia. India does not manufacture them; instead, the Indian Navy has leased them from Russia (such as the INS Chakra) to bridge strategic gaps while developing its own indigenous nuclear submarine programs
Q94. Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process (RCP) for Asian labor-sending countries. While it operates by consensus, it is a non-binding platform. It focuses on sharing best practices and technical cooperation regarding overseas employment rather than making binding legal decisions.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) is a voluntary, non-binding consultative process. It serves as a bridge between Asian countries of labor origin and destination (primarily Gulf countries) to cooperate on contractual labor mobility and worker protection.
Statement 3 is Correct: The Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) was created following a proposal by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2006. It is an informal, state-led, and voluntaryforum whose outcomes are non-binding.
Q95. Consider the following UN organisations/agencies :
How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: a
Explanation:
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR): Awarded twice, first in 1954 for its work resettling European refugees after World War II, and again in 1981 for its global efforts assisting refugees in Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
World Food Programme (WFP): Awarded once in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger and prevent the use of food as a weapon of war.
United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF): Awarded once in 1965 for its global humanitarian aid to children and promotion of brotherhood among nations.
International Labour Organisation (ILO): Awarded once in 1969 for its work in establishing international legislation to protect workers' rights and improve social justice
Q96. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
|
List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) |
List II (Period of Operation) |
|
A. UNMIL |
1. 2007–2010 |
|
B. MINURCAT |
2. 2002–2005 |
|
C. MINUSTAH |
3. 2003–2018 |
|
D. UNMISET |
4. 2004–2017 |
Code :
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
|
(a) |
3 |
4 |
1 |
2 |
|
(b) |
3 |
1 |
4 |
2 |
|
(c) |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
|
(d) |
2 |
4 |
1 |
3 |
Answer: b
Explanation:
Q97. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
|
List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) |
List II (Location) |
|
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory |
1. NOIDA |
|
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre |
2. Bengaluru |
|
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate |
3. Colombo |
|
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility |
4. Thimphu |
Code :
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
|
|
(a) |
3 |
2 |
1 |
4 |
|
(b) |
3 |
1 |
2 |
4 |
|
(c) |
4 |
2 |
1 |
3 |
|
(d) |
4 |
1 |
2 |
3 |
Answer: c
Explanation:
|
BIMSTEC Centre / Establishment |
Location |
Purpose / Background |
|
Cultural Industries Observatory |
Thimphu, Bhutan |
Serves as an information repository for cultural industries to foster closer people-to-people ties. Established via an MoU signed during the 3rd BIMSTEC Summit. |
|
Energy Centre |
Bengaluru, India |
Located at the Central Power Research Institute (CPRI) to coordinate regional power grid interconnection and enhance collective energy security. |
|
Centre for Weather and Climate |
NOIDA, India |
Housed within the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF)to collaborate on advanced weather prediction, data modeling, and early disaster warning. |
|
Technology Transfer Facility |
Colombo, Sri Lanka |
Officially formed during the 5th BIMSTEC Summit to enable seamless technology transfer, capacity building, and knowledge sharing among member nations. |
Q98. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
|
Indian Army Corps |
Headquarters |
|
(a) 3 Corps |
Dimapur |
|
(b) 4 Corps |
Tezpur |
|
(c) 14 Corps |
Leh |
|
(d) 33 Corps |
Srinagar |
Answer: d
Explanation:
The correct headquarters for each corps are as follows:
Q99. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: b
Funding Pattern:
Q100. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union ?
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
The European Union (EU) currently has 27 member states. Poland and Germany are part of the bloc, while Belarus and Switzerland are not:
Why the other options are incorrect
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