UPSC Indian Polity PYQs (2014-25) with Solved Answers

HISTORICAL BACKGROUND

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over? (2024)
1. Rajagopalachari
2. B.R. Ambedkar
3. T. Krishnamachari
4. Sachchidananda Sinha

Ans: D

Exp: The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. Following French tradition, the eldest member, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, was appointed as the interim (Provisional) President of the Assembly.

Later, on December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.

This practice of appointing the eldest member as the Provisional President is also followed in the French Parliament, which served as the inspiration for this decision.

Additional Information:

Various committees and their chairman in the constituent assembly:

Drafting Committee

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Union Powers Committee

Jawaharlal Nehru

Union Constitution Committee

Jawaharlal Nehru

Provincial Constitution Committee

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee

J.B. Kripalani

Minorities Sub-Committee

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee

A.V. Thakkar

Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, Tribal and Excluded Areas

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Rules of Procedure Committee

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Finance and Staff Committee

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Credentials Committee

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Steering Committee

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Ad hoc Committee on Citizenship

S. Varadachari

Committee on Chief Commissioners’ Provinces

B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya

Linguistic Provinces Commission

S.K. Dhar

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India? (2023)
1. The Regulating Act
2. The Pitt's India Act
3. The Charter Act of 1793
4. The Charter Act of 1833

Ans: D

Explanation

This Act marked the final step towards centralization in British India.

It designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, granting him full civil and military authority.

For the first time, a unified Government of India was established, exercising control over all British territories in India.
Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India under this Act.

The Act stripped the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.

Laws enacted under previous acts were referred to as Regulations, whereas laws passed under this Act were termed Acts.

It marked the end of the East India Company's commercial operations, transforming it into a purely administrative entity.

It adds a new member to the executive council but not as a permanent member. Maculay was appointed as the 4^th member to give advice related to law.

A new rule (rule 87) has been introduced to end racial discrimination.

Consider the following statements regarding Constitution Day: (2023)
Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement-I is correct: Constitution Day, also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated in India on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
Statement-II is incorrect: The Drafting Committee was set up by the Constituent Assembly on 29th August 1947 under the Chairmanship of B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for India. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect on 26th January 1950 (the day of commencement).
The Constitution, as adopted on November 26, 1949, originally contained a Preamble, 395 Articles, and 8 Schedules.

Provisions Enacted on 26th November 1949

On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly formally adopted the Indian Constitution, but only some provisions came into effect immediately. These included:

Article 394 – Specified which provisions would come into force immediately.
Provisions related to Citizenship (Article 5-11).
Elections and Provisional Parliament (Article 324, 366, 367).
Provisions related to the President and Vice-President (Articles 52-62).
The Supreme Court and High Courts (Articles 124-147 and 214-231).
Provisions related to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) (Article 148-151).
Article 372 – Continuation of existing laws until amended or repealed.
Article 379-394 – Transitional provisions for the shift from the Government of India Act, 1935, to the new Constitution.

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of the Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects? (2022)

Administration of Justice
Local Self-Government
Land Revenue
Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Solution: (c)

Explanation:
The Government of India Act 1919 introduced the system of 'dyarchy' in provincial administration, dividing subjects into two categories: reserved and transferred.

Reserved subjects (controlled by the Governor and his executive council of bureaucrats) included law and order, land revenue, administration of justice, finance, and police.
Transferred subjects (managed by ministers elected from the legislative council) included education, health, and local self-government.

This system was designed to increase Indian participation in governance, but real power remained with the British. The Act came into effect in 1921.

IMPORTANT CONCEPTS

1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the Constitution of a country? (2023)

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality, and social security.

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

A constitution is a set of fundamental principles and laws that outline the structure and functioning of the state.
It serves as a legal, political, and social framework for governing institutions and legislation.
The Constitution defines citizens' rights and ensures they are upheld by government policies and laws.
Politically, it allocates and restricts government powers (its chief purpose), preventing any single branch from becoming too dominant.
A constitution delineates the powers that each branch and level of government can exercise, and it also imposes limits to prevent abuse of power. This principle is also known as the rule of law, which means that every individual, including those in power, is subject to the law. Hence, option c is correct.
Socially, it embodies shared civic values, guiding the governance of the state.

2. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? (2023)

(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

The Doctrine of 'Due Process of Law' originates from English Common Law and was first introduced in the Magna Carta.
It ensures that laws depriving a person of life and liberty must be fair, just, and non-arbitrary in addition to being legally valid.
Unlike the Procedure Established by Law, which only examines whether a law exists, Due Process of Law requires judicial review of both the procedure and the fairness of the law.
It is closely linked to natural justice, which guarantees the right to a fair hearing, unbiased judgment, and adherence to due legal procedure.
Earlier, the Indian constitution followed Procedure established by law instead of due process of law. But, post Menaka Gandhi Case, the Supreme Court clarified that the Indian judiciary will follow both the Procedure established by law and the due process of law to check the constitutionality of any legislation and executive order.

3. Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'? (2021)

(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their rights, and secure their means of sustenance.
(c) A group of people residing in a specific region for a long period, with distinct culture, traditions, and governance.
(d) A society settled in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive accountable to it, and an independent judiciary.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

A State is a political entity that represents a sovereign community within a fixed territory, governed by an independent administration free from external control.
It consists of four essential components: population, territory, government, and sovereignty.
Therefore, a community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory, free from external control, and governed by an organized administration is the most precise definition of a State.

Additional Info:

Difference between the Nation and State:

The State has four elements—population, territory, government, and sovereignty. In the absence of even one element, a State cannot be really a State. A state is always characterized by all these four elements. On the contrary, a nation is a group of people who have a strong sense of unity and common consciousness.
The State is a political organization which fulfills the security and welfare needs of its people. It is concerned with external human actions. It is a legal entity. On the other hand, a Nation is a united unit of population which is full of emotional, spiritual and psychological bonds. A nation has little to do with the physical needs of the people.
It is essential for each State to possess a fixed territory. It is the physical element of the State. State is a territorial entity. But for a nation, territory is not an essential requirement. A nation can survive even without a fixed territory.
The State is limited to a fixed territory. Its boundaries can increase or decrease but the process of change is always very complex. However, a nation may or may not remain within the bounds of a fixed territory. Nation is a community based on common ethnicity, history, traditions and aspirations.

4. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)

(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Separation of powers ensures that the legislative, executive, and judicial branches function independently, preventing the concentration of power in any single entity.
This principle upholds liberty and individual rights by enforcing a system of checks and balances within the government.
Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) emphasizes the separation of the judiciary from the executive.
Why are the other options incorrect?
- A committed judiciary may align its rulings with government policies rather than upholding constitutional principles.
- Centralization of power increases authoritarianism, limiting citizens' freedoms.
- An elected government, by itself, does not guarantee liberty unless it is subject to institutional checks and balances like separation of powers.

5. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021)

(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Indian Constitution.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, removed it from Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right under Article 300-A.
Article 300-A states: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."
Therefore, the Right to Property is now a legal right accessible to both citizens and non-citizens but does not enjoy the same level of protection as Fundamental Rights.

6. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is: (2020)

(a) The final goal of a stateless society
(b) Class struggle
(c) Abolition of private property
(d) Economic determinism

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Both Gandhism and Marxism envision a stateless society, though they propose different approaches to achieve it.
Karl Marx considered the state an instrument of oppression, advocating for class struggle and revolution to eliminate class distinctions and create a stateless society.
Mahatma Gandhi, on the other hand, conceptualized 'Ram Rajya', a decentralized, self-sustaining, and harmonious society free from political constraints. K. Gandhi believed in Class cooperation.
While Marxism emphasizes revolutionary struggle, Gandhism promotes non-violence and decentralized governance.
Marx was not against the industrial production, but was against its unequal sharing of production and profit. Whereas, Gandhiji was against the industrial production and gave stress on cottage industry and self-sufficiency of the village.

7. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (2020)

(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Solution: (d)
Explanation: The bureaucracy is the executive branch of the government, responsible for implementing decisions made by elected officials. Bureaucrats are selected through a merit-based process to manage state affairs. In India, the primary function of the bureaucracy is to ensure the execution of government policies. While political leadership may change with elections, the bureaucracy remains a stable institution, providing continuity in governance. This ensures that policies are implemented consistently, regardless of changes in political leadership.

8. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital? (2019)

(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure, and machines
(c) The size of the population in the working-age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in society

Solution: (d)
Explanation: According to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), social capital refers to networks, shared norms, values, and mutual trust that facilitate cooperation within or among groups. It enables individuals to build communities, commit to one another, and maintain a cohesive social fabric.

The proportion of literate in the population and the size of the working-age population are examples of human capital, which relates to skills and knowledge. Meanwhile, infrastructure, buildings, and machines are examples of physical capital, which represents tangible assets. However, social capital primarily pertains to the level of mutual trust, shared values, and cooperation in a society, making option (d) the correct answer.

SALIENT FEATURES OF THE CONSTITUTION

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects its consequence? (2022)

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Correct: The Fifth Schedule provides a framework for administering Scheduled Areas to protect tribal rights. It includes provisions restricting the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring that indigenous communities retain their land and resources.
Incorrect: The Fifth Schedule does not mandate the creation of a local self-governing body; that falls under Panchayati Raj and other constitutional provisions.
Incorrect: Being classified as a Scheduled Area does not change a region into a Union Territory. These areas remain part of the respective states but receive special governance provisions.
Incorrect: Inclusion in the Fifth Schedule does not make a state a Special Category State, which is a separate classification based on economic and geographical factors.

Under Article 244(1), the President defines Scheduled Areas, and the Governor, in consultation with the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC), can introduce regulations related to land transfers, tribal welfare, and economic protections.

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates its federal character? (2021)

(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.

(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.

(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

(a) Correct: A federal system requires a judiciary independent of the executive and legislature to adjudicate disputes between the Union and States. This is a defining trait of federalism, ensuring that both levels of government operate within their constitutional limits.
(b) Incorrect: While the Rajya Sabha represents states, having elected representatives alone does not define federalism. True federalism involves a constitutional division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(c) Incorrect: Regional party representation in the Cabinet is a political reality but not a defining feature of federalism.
(d) Incorrect: Fundamental Rights being enforceable by courts ensures individual liberty, but it is not unique to federal systems. Even in unitary countries, courts uphold constitutional rights.

Thus, the independence of the judiciary is a fundamental indicator of India’s federal structure.

Unitary features of Indian polity:

Federal features of Indian Polity:

Consider the following statements: (2020)
The Constitution of India explicitly defines its basic structure, including federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
The Constitution of India provides for judicial review to protect citizens’ liberties and uphold constitutional principles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 Incorrect: The Basic Structure Doctrine ensures that fundamental constitutional principles remain unchanged, but the Constitution itself does not explicitly define what constitutes its basic structure. This principle was formulated by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

The term “judicial review” itself is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Indian Constitution. However, the power of judicial review is implicitly enshrined within various provisions of the Constitution, making it a fundamental aspect of the Indian legal system.

Answer would be d.

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? (2019)

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

The Fifth Schedule governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes and aims to prevent exploitation of tribal communities.
Article 244(1) empowers the Governor, in consultation with the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC), to regulate land transfers, thereby preventing the sale of tribal lands to private companies for activities like mining.
In Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997), the Supreme Court ruled that transferring tribal land to private parties for mining was unconstitutional under this Schedule.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) Fifth Schedule.

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of: (2019)

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act (1951) during Jawaharlal Nehru’s tenure as Prime Minister.
It was primarily introduced to protect land reform laws from judicial review, preventing courts from striking them down on the basis of Fundamental Rights violations.
Over time, several laws were placed under this Schedule, but in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that even Ninth Schedule laws could be reviewed if they violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) Jawaharlal Nehru.

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(d) Legal Right

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

(a) Incorrect: The Right to Vote is not a Fundamental Right but a statutory right granted under Article 326 and governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

(b) Incorrect: A Natural Right is an inherent right that exists independent of laws, such as the right to life. Voting is a legal construct, not a natural right.

(c) Correct: The Right to Vote is guaranteed by the Constitution under Article 326, which states that elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies shall be based on universal adult suffrage.

(d) Incorrect: While election laws regulate voting, the right itself is derived from the Constitution, making it a constitutional right, not just a legal one.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Constitutional Right.

Out of the following statements, choose the one that best represents the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (2017)

(a) An arrangement to minimize criticism against the Government, whose responsibilities are complex and difficult to execute to everyone’s satisfaction.

(b) A system designed to accelerate government functions as its responsibilities continue to expand.

(d) A tool to strengthen the authority of the head of government when their influence over the people is weakening.

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

The Cabinet system, also known as the Parliamentary System, ensures that the executive is collectively responsible to the legislature, which, in turn, represents the people.
This system is a fundamental part of the Indian Constitution’s basic structure and is enforced through mechanisms like parliamentary motions, debates, and budget discussions.
Options (a), (b), and (d) do not reflect the primary constitutional principle of this system.

Thus, the correct answer is (c).

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (2017)

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Statements in (a), (b), and (c) are correct:
Independent Judiciary: The judiciary ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and resolves disputes between the Centre and the States.
Division of Powers: The Constitution explicitly distributes powers between the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists (Seventh Schedule).
Unequal Representation in Rajya Sabha: Unlike the U.S. Senate, where all states have equal representation, Indian states have seats based on population.
Statement in (d) is incorrect:
Unlike classical federations (e.g., the USA), India’s Union was not formed by an agreement among sovereign states.
The term “Union of States” was chosen to indicate that states cannot secede, and their boundaries can be altered by Parliament.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described it as an “indestructible union of destructible states.”

Thus, the correct answer is (d).

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that: (2017)

(a) The executive and legislature work independently.

(b) It ensures policy continuity and is more efficient.

(d) The head of government cannot be changed without an election.

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

The Parliamentary system, also known as Cabinet Government or the Westminster Model, is based on the principle of responsible government.
The Executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the Legislature (Parliament), ensuring accountability and checks on power.
Key features of the Parliamentary system:
Dual Executive: Nominal (President) and Real (Prime Minister).
Collective Responsibility: Ministers act as a team and are accountable to Parliament.
Majority Rule: The ruling party must have a majority in the lower house.
Dissolution of Lower House: The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before its term ends.

Thus, the correct answer is (c).

The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to: (2015)

(a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

(b) Determine the boundaries between States.

(d) Safeguard the interests of all border States.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct:
The Fifth and Sixth Schedules contain provisions for the protection and administration of Scheduled Tribes and their regions.
Fifth Schedule:
Deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states except for Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
The President designates Scheduled Areas, and the Governor has special powers to regulate laws affecting these regions.
Sixth Schedule:
Applies to the autonomous tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Provides for Autonomous District Councils with legislative and administrative powers to protect tribal customs and governance.
Other options are incorrect:
(b) The Schedules do not deal with state boundaries.
(c) Panchayat powers are defined under Part IX of the Constitution, not these Schedules.
(d) The Schedules do not specifically address border states.

Thus, the correct answer is (a).

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (2014)

(a) Second Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution was introduced through the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 to address the issue of political defection.
It lays down provisions for the disqualification of Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) if they defect from their party.
The decision on disqualification is made by the Speaker (Lok Sabha/State Assembly) or Chairman (Rajya Sabha/Legislative Council) of the respective house.
Other options are incorrect:
(a) Second Schedule deals with salaries and allowances of high constitutional authorities (President, Governors, Judges, etc.).
(b) Fifth Schedule pertains to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
(c) Eighth Schedule lists official languages recognized by the Constitution.

Thus, the correct answer is (d).

PREAMBLE

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (2021)

(a) A democratic Republic

(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

On January 26, 1950, when the Constitution of India became effective, the nation was proclaimed a Sovereign Democratic Republic. At that time, the Preamble included these terms to denote India’s independence, democratic structure, and republican nature. Later, with the 42nd Amendment in 1976, additional adjectives such as “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” were incorporated into the Preamble.

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is: (2020)

(a) Part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Preamble is an integral section of the Constitution, serving as a philosophical guide for its interpretation. However, it does not independently confer enforceable rights in a court of law. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) clarified that while the Preamble is an essential part of the constitutional fabric, its role is primarily interpretative rather than legally binding on its own. In this case, the court also said that if the words of the Constitution are ambiguous, the preamble can be consulted.

In Randhir Singh v Union of India, 1982 case, the Supreme Court, relying on the Preamble and Articles 14 and 16, held that Article 39(d) envisages a constitutional right of “equal pay for equal work” for both men and women.

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019)

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Liberty transcends the simple notion of being unrestrained; it entails the genuine opportunity for individuals to reach their full potential without infringing upon the rights of others. This concept aligns with the idea of positive liberty, which emphasizes personal development within a framework of laws and ethical boundaries.

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty? (2018)

(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The concept here is that laws are essential to ensure and protect individual freedoms. In the absence of laws, the protection of liberty would be impossible, potentially leading to chaos. While some might argue that excessive legislation might restrict freedom, it is the structure provided by law that actually underpins a free society.

Concept of Positive and Negative Liberty – Historically, Liberty was initially thought to be an outcome of complete absence of restraints. This idea of liberty is known as negative liberty. However, later on political thinkers agreed on the fact that an absolute lack of restraints is neither possible nor desirable. This idea of liberty is known as positive liberty. Philosopher John Locke said “where there is no law, there is no freedom”. He also wrote that the ultimate aim of the laws was not to abolish or restrain, but to preserve and enlarge freedom.

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017)

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(d) Liberty of belief

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Preamble explicitly guarantees liberties such as thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. Economic liberty, however, is not directly mentioned in the Preamble. Instead, issues of economic justice and related concerns are addressed through the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

As per Article 38 of the DPSP, the state shall strive to promote the welfare of the people of India by securing and protecting their Social, Economic, and Political justice.

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (2017)

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Preamble succinctly encapsulates the vision and ideals of the Constitution’s framers. It embodies the core values of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, setting the tone for the entire constitutional document. While the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles serve significant roles, the Preamble provides the foundational ethos of the Constitution.

‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in: (2014)

(a) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights

(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Economic Justice is a key goal highlighted in the Constitution, explicitly referenced in both the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). The Preamble outlines this commitment in its broader context of social justice, while specific articles within the DPSP (notably Articles 38 and 39) direct the state to work towards reducing economic inequalities and ensuring fair distribution of resources. The 44th Amendment in 1978 further underscored this commitment.

CITIZENSHIP

With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)
There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Indian Constitution addresses citizenship under Part II (Articles 5 to 11), defining who is considered an Indian citizen as of January 26, 1950.

Statement 1 is correct: India follows the principle of single citizenship, meaning that all Indians, regardless of the state or territory they belong to, hold only Indian citizenship. Additionally, domicile is singular, meaning a person can have only one domicile at a time, based on their permanent residence.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The President of India, who is the Head of State, can be either a citizen by birth or a naturalized citizen. The Constitution does not restrict the office of President to only those born in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreign national who acquires Indian citizenship can be stripped of it under certain conditions. The Citizenship Act of 1955 allows for revocation of citizenship if it was obtained fraudulently, if the person has shown disloyalty to the Constitution, collaborated with an enemy nation during wartime, been imprisoned for two years within five years of registration/naturalization, or has continuously lived outside India for seven years.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

Q1. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to: (2024)

(a) A government officer, preventing them from taking a specific action.

(b) The Parliament/Legislative Assembly, directing them to pass a law on Prohibition.

(d) The Government, preventing it from implementing an unconstitutional policy.

Ans: C

Explanation:

Writs are formal orders issued by the Supreme Court (under Article 32) or High Courts (under Article 226) to provide constitutional remedies when a citizen’s fundamental rights are violated. There are five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari.
Habeas Corpus (“to produce the body”) is a court directive requiring authorities to present a detained individual before the court within 24 hours to assess the legality of their detention. If the detention is found unlawful, the individual is released.
Mandamus (“command”) is a writ issued by higher courts to compel public officials, authorities, tribunals, or lower courts to perform their duties. It does not apply to private individuals or companies.
Prohibition (“to prohibit or restrain”) is a writ issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent it from acting beyond its jurisdiction. This applies only to judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not administrative agencies, private individuals, or businesses. Thus, option C is correct.
Quo Warranto (“by what authority”) allows anyone to challenge a person’s legal right to hold a public office. This writ does not apply to ministerial positions.
Certiorari (“certified”) is a writ issued by the High Court or Supreme Court to a lower court or tribunal, directing the transfer of a case for review or appeal.

Q2. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? (2024)

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

Ans: D

Explanation:

The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the right to privacy. However, over time, courts have interpreted existing rights to recognize a limited right to privacy, primarily under Article 21—which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
In 2015, the scope of this interpretation was challenged and referred to a larger bench in the Justice K.S. Puttaswamy & Another vs. Union of India and Others case.
On 24 August 2017, the Supreme Court delivered a landmark ruling, unanimously declaring that privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21. The court held that the right to privacy is an essential part of the right to life and personal liberty and is also linked to the freedoms guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution.
However, the court clarified that the right to privacy, like all fundamental rights, is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions.

Here’s

Here’s the rephrased explanation with numbering for questions but using bullets for explanations:

Q3. Consider the following statements: (2023)

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has ruled in some judgments that reservation policies under Article 16(4) are subject to Article 335, which ensures the maintenance of administrative efficiency.

Statement-II: Article 335 explicitly defines the term “efficiency of administration.”

Which of the following is correct?

(a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.

(b) Both statements are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

The Supreme Court has upheld in cases like Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1993) and M. Nagaraj v. Union of India (2006) that reservation policies under Article 16(4) must align with Article 335, which emphasizes maintaining administrative efficiency while considering Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST) appointments in public services.
The Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration.” This issue was later addressed in B.K. Pavitra (II) v. Union of India (2019), where the court stated that administrative efficiency should be understood inclusively, ensuring diverse representation in governance.

.Q4. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

Mandamus cannot be issued against a private organization unless it performs a public duty.
Mandamus cannot be issued against a government company.
Any public-minded person can file a petition for Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Mandamus (meaning “we command”) is a court-issued directive compelling public officials or bodies to perform their legal duties. It applies to public authorities, corporations, tribunals, and government bodies but does not extend to purely private entities unless they are entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus can be issued against government companies or corporations if they perform public functions, making Statement 2 incorrect.
Quo Warranto (meaning “by what authority”) is a writ questioning the legal right of an individual to hold a public office. Unlike other writs, any interested person can file for it, not just an aggrieved party.

Q5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (2021)

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 19

(d) Article 29

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

The Supreme Court ruled in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The court emphasized that privacy is essential for personal dignity and autonomy.
The judgment also established that privacy is protected from arbitrary state actions, reinforcing individual freedoms under the Indian Constitution.

Other Articles:

Article 15 prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Article 19 guarantees fundamental freedoms such as speech, assembly, and movement.
Article 29 safeguards the cultural and educational rights of minorities.

Q 6. A law that grants executive or administrative authorities unrestricted and unguided discretionary power in enforcing legislation violates which Article of the Indian Constitution? (2021)

(a) Article 14

(b) Article 28

(d) Article 44

Solution: (a)

Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection under the law. If legislation provides unchecked discretionary power to executive or administrative authorities, it undermines the rule of law and the principle of equality, leading to arbitrariness. This violates the fundamental right to equality and fairness under Article 14, making such laws unconstitutional.

Concept of rule of law (A. V. Dicey):

Supremacy of Law – No one is above the law; laws must be applied uniformly without arbitrary power.
Equality Before Law – Every individual, regardless of status, is subject to the same legal system, with no special privileges.
Predominance of Legal Spirit – Individual rights are safeguarded by the judiciary, ensuring justice through legal principles.

The Indian Constitution only follows the first two.

Q.7 The constitutional protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination falls under which category of Fundamental Rights? (2020)

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Equality

Solution: (d)

Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice, making it a punishable offense. Since untouchability is a form of caste-based discrimination, its abolition is a crucial aspect of the Right to Equality (Articles 14–18). The provisions under this right include:

Article 14: Equality before law
Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth
Article 16: Equality of opportunity in public employment
Article 17: Abolition of untouchability
Article 18: Abolition of titles

Thus, untouchability falls under the Right to Equality.

Q 8. Apart from Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution incorporate principles from the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) 1948? (2020)

Preamble
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Preamble) is correct: The Preamble reflects UDHR principles such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. Article 3 of the UDHR states, “Everyone has the right to life, liberty, and security of person,” aligning with India’s constitutional values.
Statement 2 (DPSP) is correct: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) aim to establish a welfare state by ensuring social and economic justice, which corresponds to Article 22 of the UDHR, stating that “Everyone, as a member of society, has the right to social security.”
Statement 3 (Fundamental Duties) is correct: Article 51A lists civic and moral responsibilities of Indian citizens, similar to Article 29 of the UDHR, which highlights the relationship between individual rights and duties toward the community.

Thus, all three—Preamble, DPSPs, and Fundamental Duties—reflect UDHR principles.

Q.9 Which Article of the Indian Constitution protects an individual’s right to marry a person of their choice? (2019)

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

Solution: (b)

Explanation: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution upholds the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the freedom to choose a life partner. The Court has emphasized that this right is fundamental to individual autonomy and dignity. In Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (Hadiya case), it reaffirmed that the ability to select one’s spouse is an essential part of personal liberty, and any restriction on it must meet strict constitutional scrutiny.

However, the recent Supreme Court decision in Supriyo Chakraborty v. Union of India reignited the debate. While the apex court unanimously agreed that the right to marry is not fundamental, the possibility of its future recognition remains.

Q 10. Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: (2018)

The Parliament of India has the authority to place a specific law under the Ninth Schedule.
Any law included in the Ninth Schedule is beyond judicial review and cannot be challenged in court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to shield certain laws from being invalidated for violating Fundamental Rights. Laws placed under this schedule receive protection under Article 31B, which grants them immunity from constitutional challenges.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Initially, laws in the Ninth Schedule were considered immune from judicial review. However, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and later in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that any law, including those in the Ninth Schedule, cannot violate the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution. Laws added after April 24, 1973, can be reviewed and struck down if they undermine fundamental rights.

Thus, while Parliament can place laws in the Ninth Schedule, they are not absolutely immune from judicial scrutiny.

Q 11. Which of the following are considered fundamental aspects of the Rule of Law? (2018)

Limitation of Powers
Equality before the law
People’s responsibility to the Government
Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

The Rule of Law, as formulated by A.V. Dicey, is a foundational principle of democratic governance that ensures all individuals and institutions, including the government, are subject to legal constraints.

Statement 1 is correct (Limitation of Powers): Government actions must be restricted by legal frameworks to prevent arbitrary use of authority.
Statement 2 is correct (Equality before Law): Every individual, regardless of status, is subject to the same legal standards.
Statement 3 is incorrect (People’s Responsibility to the Government): The government is accountable to the people, not the other way around. While citizens have duties, the Rule of Law primarily ensures that power is exercised lawfully.
Statement 4 is correct (Liberty and Civil Rights): The Rule of Law protects individual freedoms and prevents unjust government interference.

Thus, the core elements of Rule of Law include limiting governmental power, ensuring equality before the law, and protecting civil liberties.

Q.12 The Right to Privacy is protected as an essential part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following provisions in the Indian Constitution best reflect this principle? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees protection of life and personal liberty, which the Supreme Court has interpreted to include the Right to Privacy. In the Puttaswamy judgment (2017), the Court ruled that privacy is a fundamental right, essential to human dignity and personal autonomy.

However, this right is not absolute and can be restricted only if:

The restriction is backed by a legislative mandate.
It serves a legitimate state interest.
The restriction is proportionate to the objective pursued.

Thus, Article 21 and the broader framework of Fundamental Rights (Part III) serve as the constitutional basis for the Right to Privacy in India.

Q 13. Which of the following provisions are included under the Right Against Exploitation in the Indian Constitution? (2017)

Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labor
Abolition of untouchability
Protection of minority rights
Ban on child labor in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only

(b) 2, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 23 prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and other exploitative practices such as bonded labor and slavery. It ensures that no individual is treated as a commodity and protects against forced employment.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The abolition of untouchability is covered under Article 17, which falls under the Right to Equality, not the Right Against Exploitation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The protection of minority rights is covered under Articles 29 and 30, which come under Cultural and Educational Rights, not the Right Against Exploitation.
Statement 4 is correct: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in hazardous industries such as factories and mines. This protection is further strengthened by laws like the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, and the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, which established special courts for child-related offenses.

Thus, only Statements 1 and 4 are correct, making option (c) the right answer.

Q 14. In the Indian context, what is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? (2017)

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and exist independently of society and Duties.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are crucial for maintaining state stability.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

In India, rights and duties are interdependent. While the Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights, it also imposes Fundamental Duties to ensure that individual freedoms are exercised responsibly, maintaining social harmony and national integrity.

Rights, such as freedom of speech and equality, come with corresponding duties to prevent misuse and maintain order.
Fundamental Duties, such as respecting the Constitution, promoting harmony, and safeguarding public property, support the exercise and protection of rights.

For instance, the Right to a clean environment depends on citizens fulfilling their duty to protect and conserve nature. Similarly, freedom of speech must be exercised without spreading hate or misinformation.

Thus, rights and duties are not isolated concepts—they work together to uphold the principles of justice, liberty, and fraternity as envisioned in the Preamble of the Constitution. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 5. One of the key implications of equality in society is the absence of: (2017)

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(d) Ideology

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: A truly equal society is one where no individual or group enjoys special privileges based on birth, wealth, or status. The concept of equality before the law (a British principle) ensures that everyone is subject to the same legal system, with no one above the law. It prevents institutionalized discrimination and promotes fairness.

Why are the other options incorrect?

(b) Restraints: Equality does not mean complete freedom from societal or legal restrictions. Laws are necessary to protect rights and maintain order.
(c) Competition: The presence of competition does not contradict equality. In fact, fair competition is necessary for merit-based opportunities and economic growth.
(d) Ideology: The absence of ideology is not a measure of equality. Societies can have diverse ideologies while still upholding principles of equality and justice.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) Privileges—a truly equal society ensures that no one has special advantages over others.

Q 16. Which of the following statements about rights is correct? (2017)

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges granted by the Constitution of a State.

(d) Rights are privileges enjoyed by a select few.

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Rights are entitlements that individuals can claim against the state to protect their freedom, dignity, and well-being. The primary function of rights is to limit the power of the government and prevent arbitrary actions. Fundamental Rights in India (Part III of the Constitution) are designed to ensure that the state does not infringe upon personal freedoms.

Why the other options are incorrect?

(a) Rights are not the State’s claims against citizens; instead, they are citizens’ protections from state overreach.
(b) Rights are not privileges—they are fundamental entitlements, and governments cannot take them away arbitrarily.
(d) Rights are universal and do not belong to a select group. They apply to all citizens equally, ensuring justice and fairness.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State—ensuring that governments function within limits and respect individual freedoms.

DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

Under the Indian Constitution, the concentration of wealth violates: (2021)

(a) the Right to Equality

(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) the Concept of Welfare

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), outlined in Part IV of the Constitution, focus on reducing economic inequality and preventing wealth concentration in a few hands.
Article 38(2): Directs the State to minimize income, status, and opportunity inequalities.
Article 39(b) and (c): Mandates that ownership and control of resources be distributed equitably, preventing economic monopolization.

Why the other options are incorrect?

(a) Right to Equality (Articles 14-18): Ensures legal and social equality but does not explicitly address wealth concentration.
(c) Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22): Protects personal liberties like speech and profession, but does not regulate wealth distribution.
(d) Concept of Welfare: While welfare is a broad goal, DPSPs specifically provide the constitutional basis for economic equity.

Thus, DPSPs directly address economic disparities, making option (b) the correct answer.

Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the ideal of a Welfare State? (2020)

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), found in Articles 36-51, serve as guidelines for the government to establish a Welfare State.
Article 38(1): Directs the State to promote social, economic, and political justice for the welfare of the people.
Article 41 & 43: Emphasize social security, fair wages, and living conditions for all citizens.
Why are the other options incorrect?
(b) Fundamental Rights: Protect individual freedoms but do not explicitly define a Welfare State.
(c) Preamble: It lays down broad principles like justice and equality but does not provide actionable policies.
(d) Seventh Schedule: This defines the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States but does not mention welfare directly.

Thus, DPSPs provide the constitutional framework for a Welfare State, making option (a) the correct answer.

With reference to the provisions in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020)
They shall be enforceable by courts.
They shall not be enforceable by any court.
The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced in courts. Article 37 clearly states that while these principles are fundamental in governance, they are not legally binding like Fundamental Rights.
Statement 2 is correct: Since DPSPs are not enforceable by courts, the judiciary cannot compel the government to implement them. However, courts may interpret laws in the light of these principles.
Statement 3 is correct: DPSPs serve as a guiding framework for policymaking, influencing laws related to education, social justice, economic welfare, and environmental protection. For example:
Article 39A led to the enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, ensuring free legal aid.
Article 48A influenced environmental protection laws like the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Thus, DPSPs shape governance but are not enforceable in court, making option (d) the correct answer.

In India, the separation of the judiciary from the executive is enjoined by: (2020)

(a) the Preamble of the Constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

(d) the conventional practice

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) explicitly states that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. This principle ensures judicial independence from executive interference.
Why the other options are incorrect?
(a) Preamble: While it outlines justice, liberty, and equality, it does not specifically mention judicial separation.
(c) Seventh Schedule: Deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States, not judicial independence.
(d) Conventional practice: Although judicial independence is respected, it is explicitly mandated in the Constitution under Article 50.

Thus, the correct answer is (b), as Article 50 of DPSP ensures judicial independence.

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens? (2020)
Persons with an annual income of less than ₹1,00,000.
Transgender persons with an annual income of less than ₹2,00,000.
Members of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹3,00,000.
All senior citizens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, free legal aid is available to:
Women and children
SC/ST members
Industrial workers
Victims of disasters, trafficking, and violence
Disabled persons
Persons in custody
Persons with an annual income below ₹1,00,000 (or as prescribed by the State)
Statement 2 is correct: Free legal aid is available to transgender persons with an income below ₹2,00,000 per year.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no specific provision for OBCs based on income under the Legal Services Authorities Act.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Senior citizens are not automatically eligible for free legal aid unless they meet income criteria set by state governments.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) – 1 and 2 only.

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (2017)

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(d) Securing a living wage and human conditions of work for workers

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added three new DPSPs:
Article 39A: Equal justice and free legal aid.
Article 43A: Participation of workers in the management of industries.
Article 48A: Protection of the environment.
Why the other options are incorrect?
(a) Equal pay for equal work (Article 39(d)) was already part of the original DPSPs.
(c) Right to work, education, and assistance (Article 41) was also part of the original DPSPs.
(d) Securing a living wage (Article 43) was included from the beginning.

Thus, the correct answer is (b), as Article 43A was introduced by the 42nd Amendment.

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon: (2017)
Legislative function.
Executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: DPSPs do not impose limitations on the legislature or executive but serve as guidelines for governance.
Why are both statements incorrect?
Legislative function: DPSPs do not restrict legislation; rather, they inspire laws aimed at social and economic justice.
Executive function: The executive is not legally bound to implement DPSPs, though it is expected to follow them.

Thus, DPSPs act as moral obligations rather than legal restrictions, making (d) the correct answer.

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: (2015)
The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: DPSPs aim to establish socio-economic democracy by promoting equality, justice, and welfare policies (e.g., reducing income inequalities, providing education, and ensuring fair wages).
Statement 2 is correct: DPSPs are not enforceable by courts (Article 37), though they are fundamental in governance.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) – both statements are correct.

The ideal of a ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its: (2015)

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Seventh Schedule

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The DPSPs (Articles 36-51) outline the concept of a Welfare State.
Article 38(1): The State must promote social, economic, and political justice.
Articles 41, 43, 47: Provide directives for labor welfare, social security, and public health.
Why the other options are incorrect?
(a) Preamble mentions justice and equality but does not define a Welfare State.
(c) Fundamental Rights protect individual liberties but do not guarantee welfare policies.
(d) Seventh Schedule deals with the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists, not welfare policies.

Thus, the correct answer is (b), as DPSPs define the Welfare State framework.

In the Constitution of India, the promotion of international peace and security is included in: (2014)

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Ninth Schedule

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Article 51 (DPSP) directs the State to:
Maintain just and honorable relations with other nations.
Promote respect for international law and treaty obligations.
Encourage peaceful dispute resolution through arbitration.
Why the other options are incorrect?
(a) Preamble mentions fraternity but does not explicitly refer to international peace.
(c) Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) focus on national integrity and civic responsibilities.
(d) Ninth Schedule protects certain laws from judicial review, unrelated to international peace.

Thus, the correct answer is (b), as Article 51 under DPSP mandates international peace efforts.

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? (2014)

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Article 37 of the Constitution states that although Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable by courts, they are fundamental in the governance of the country. It further states that it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Why the other options are incorrect?
(a) Fundamental Rights (FRs) are enforceable by courts and ensure individual freedoms, but they do not directly guide governance in policy-making.
(b) Fundamental Duties (FDs) (Article 51A) are moral obligations for citizens, not principles of governance for the State.
(d) Fundamental Rights and Duties together do not define the governance structure as explicitly as DPSPs do.

Thus, the correct answer is (c), as DPSPs provide the framework for governance and policy-making in India.

FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? (2017)
A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties (Article 51A, Part IV-A) were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 based on the Swaran Singh Committee’s recommendations. They are non-justiciable and not legally enforceable, meaning there is no legislative process for their direct enforcement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties. They are moral and ethical obligations rather than legal ones. While certain laws indirectly enforce some Fundamental Duties (e.g., laws against disrespecting the national flag), these duties do not impose direct legal consequences if violated.

Thus, both statements are incorrect, making option (d) the correct answer.

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the: (2015)

(a) Preamble of the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: Article 51A(c) of the Constitution states that it is the duty of every citizen “to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.”
Why not other options?
The Preamble mentions sovereignty, unity, and integrity, but it is not a legally enforceable duty.
DPSPs (Directive Principles of State Policy) (Part IV) guide governance but do not impose duties on individuals.
Fundamental Rights (Part III) protect individual liberties but do not mandate citizens to uphold sovereignty.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Fundamental Duties.

Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? (2014)
To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.
To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.
To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 51A(f) states that every citizen must “preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: Protecting weaker sections from social injustice falls under DPSPs (Article 46), not Fundamental Duties.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 51A(h) directs citizens “to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.”
Statement 4 is correct: Article 51A(j) encourages citizens “to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.”

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1, 3, and 4 only.

CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: (2024)
Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The implementation of the women’s reservation is dependent on the first census conducted after the enactment of the Bill, followed by a delimitation process. The next scheduled delimitation is in 2026, meaning the earliest possible implementation will be during the 19th Lok Sabha elections (2029), not the 18th Lok Sabha (2024).
Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be in force for 15 years, but Parliament may extend it further.
Statement 3 is correct: The reservation applies within the already reserved seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 2 and 3 only.

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? (2024)
Konkani
Manipuri
Nepali
Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Eighth Schedule initially contained 14 languages. Over time, additional languages were included:
21st Amendment (1967): Added Sindhi.
71st Amendment (1992): Added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali.
92nd Amendment (2003): Added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.

Since Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment, it was not part of the 71st Amendment.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2, and 3.

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to have been enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? (2023)

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The First Amendment Act, 1951, was enacted to address judicial interpretations that restricted government power, especially in relation to:
Land reform laws (abolition of Zamindari system).
Restrictions on free speech under Article 19(1)(a) (adding “reasonable restrictions”).
Adding Ninth Schedule to protect certain laws from judicial review.

Since this amendment directly countered judicial decisions on Fundamental Rights, it is considered the amendment enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1st Amendment.

Consider the following statements: (2022)
A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority, and there is no provision for a joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament without the prior recommendation of the President. This distinguishes it from Money Bills and certain other types of legislation that require prior approval.
Statement 2 is correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) made it mandatory for the President to give his/her assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill. Unlike ordinary bills, the President cannot withhold assent or send it back for reconsideration.
Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 368, a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both Houses separately with a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting). There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement between the two Houses, unlike ordinary legislation under Article 108.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

Consider the following statements: (2019)
The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 39th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) (not the 44th Amendment) placed the elections of key officials, including the Prime Minister, President, and Speaker, beyond judicial review. This was done during the Emergency to protect Indira Gandhi’s election from being challenged in court. However, the 44th Amendment Act (1978) repealed this provision, restoring judicial review.
Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act (2014) sought to replace the Collegium System with the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). However, in 2015, the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment, ruling that the NJAC violated the independence of the judiciary, a key part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: (2019)
No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) originally curtailed the power of High Courts to review the constitutional validity of central laws. However, the 43rd Amendment Act (1978) restored their original jurisdiction, allowing High Courts to strike down central laws that violate the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, the Supreme Court can review and strike down constitutional amendments if they violate the Basic Structure of the Constitution. This principle was established in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which ruled that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its basic structure.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

EMERGENCY PROVISION

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: (2024)
Addition
Variation
Repeal

Select the correct answer using the given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Part XX of the Constitution contains provisions related to amendments. As per Article 368, Parliament, in the exercise of its constituent power, may amend any provision of the Constitution through addition, variation, or repeal, following the prescribed procedure. Therefore, all three options—addition, variation, and repeal—are correct.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? (2024)
Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IXA of the Constitution.
Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Part IXA, introduced by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992, outlines provisions for local self-governance at the urban level, including the powers and responsibilities of municipalities.
Statement 2 is correct: Part XVIII of the Constitution (Articles 352-360) deals with emergency provisions, empowering the Central government to manage extraordinary situations.
Statement 3 is correct: Part XX outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, allowing Parliament to make changes through addition, variation, or repeal.

Since all three statements are correct, the right answer is option (d).

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of a particular State, then (2018)

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect: The State Assembly is not automatically dissolved. The President may either dissolve it or place it under suspension.
Option (b) is correct: When President’s Rule (also called ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’) is imposed, the legislative powers of the state are transferred to Parliament, which then legislates on the state’s behalf.
Option (c) is incorrect: Article 19 is not automatically suspended under President’s Rule. Suspension of Article 19 happens only during a national emergency under Article 352.
Option (d) is incorrect: The President cannot directly make laws for the state. Law-making authority during President’s Rule is exercised by Parliament or those authorized by it.

Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? (2017)
Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, the President can declare President’s Rule if a state government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions. However, dissolving the State Legislative Assembly is not a mandatory outcome of this proclamation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: When President’s Rule is imposed, the Council of Ministers, led by the Chief Minister, is dismissed.
Statement 3 is correct: There is no constitutional requirement to dissolve local bodies during President’s Rule.

Since the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly and local bodies are not necessary consequences of President’s Rule, the correct answer is option (b).

PUBLIC FINANCE

With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements: (2024)
The Union Finance Minister, on behalf of the Prime Minister, presents the Annual Financial Statement before both Houses of Parliament.
At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made without the recommendation of the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Constitution does not explicitly mention the term ‘budget’; instead, it refers to it as the ‘Annual Financial Statement’ under Article 112. The budget outlines the estimated revenue and expenditure of the Government of India for a financial year, which runs from April 1 to March 31.
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Constitution, the President is responsible for ensuring that the Annual Financial Statement is presented before both Houses of Parliament. The Union Finance Minister, acting on behalf of the President, lays the statement before Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 113(3) of the Constitution, no demand for a grant can be made in the Lok Sabha except on the recommendation of the President.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding a Money Bill in Parliament? (2024)
Article 109 outlines the special procedure for Money Bills.
A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
The Rajya Sabha may approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
Amendments to a Money Bill proposed by the Rajya Sabha must be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 109 of the Constitution outlines the special procedure for Money Bills.
Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: The Rajya Sabha can propose amendments but cannot reject or alter a Money Bill.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Lok Sabha is not required to accept the amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. It has the discretion to accept or reject them.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: (2023)
When the Lok Sabha sends the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, the latter can amend or reject it.
When the Lok Sabha sends the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject it but may offer recommendations.
In case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, a joint sitting is not held for a Money Bill, whereas a joint sitting is required for a Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Finance Bill, which implements the government’s taxation proposals, is considered a Money Bill if it solely deals with taxation and public expenditure. However, if it contains other provisions, it is treated as an ordinary bill. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments, but for a Money Bill, it cannot amend or reject it.
Statement 2 is correct: The Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes to a Money Bill but cannot amend or reject it. The Lok Sabha has the discretion to accept or ignore these recommendations.
Statement 3 is correct: In the case of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha’s role is limited, and if there is a disagreement, no joint sitting is held. However, for a Finance Bill (which is not classified as a Money Bill), a joint sitting of both Houses may be convened if there is a deadlock.

Thus, the correct answer is option (b), as two statements are correct.

STRUCTURES OF GOVERNMENT

Constitutional government means: (2021)

(a) A representative government of a nation with a federal structure

(b) A government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(d) A government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: A constitutional government functions within the framework of a constitution, which limits the powers of the government to prevent autocracy and protect individual rights. In India, these limitations are primarily enforced through Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution, ensuring citizens’ protection from arbitrary state actions.
Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect:
(a) A representative government involves elected officials making decisions on behalf of the people, and a federal structure divides power between central and regional governments. However, these aspects alone do not define a constitutional government.
(b) In constitutional monarchies like the UK, the monarch’s powers are largely ceremonial, with real authority resting with elected representatives. However, a constitutional government is not solely defined by the nominal powers of the head of state.
(c) Some presidential or parliamentary systems grant the head of state or government significant executive powers, but this alone does not constitute a constitutional government.

Thus, the key feature of a constitutional government is that it operates within the constraints set by the Constitution, making option (d) the correct answer.

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021)
As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign, but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian parliamentary system operates under constitutional supremacy, meaning Parliament’s power to legislate is subject to constitutional limitations. In contrast, the British Parliament follows parliamentary sovereignty, where it has the ultimate authority to make or repeal any law without judicial review.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, the Supreme Court has the power of judicial review and can examine the constitutionality of laws passed by Parliament. When questions arise regarding the validity of a constitutional amendment, the matter may be referred to a Constitution Bench, which consists of at least five judges, to ensure compliance with constitutional provisions.

A Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These benches are not a routine phenomenon. A vast majority of cases before the Supreme Court are heard and decided by a bench of two judges (called a Division Bench), and sometimes of three. Constitution Benches are set up when the case involves a substantial question of law pertaining to the interpretation of the Constitution (Article 145(3) of the Constitution, which mandates that such matters be heard by a bench of not less than five judges).

Thus, both statements are correct, making option (c) the right answer.

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which: (2020)

(a) All political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) The Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect: A parliamentary system does not require representation of all political parties in the government. The party (or coalition) with the majority forms the government.
Option (b) is correct: In a parliamentary system, the executive (government) is accountable to the legislature (Parliament) and can be removed through a vote of no confidence. This principle is known as collective responsibility. In India, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers remain in power as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Option (c) is incorrect: The government is not directly elected by the people but is formed by representatives elected to Parliament. The public cannot remove the government directly; they can only do so indirectly through elections or their representatives.
Option (d) is incorrect: The government is not guaranteed a fixed term and can be removed by the Parliament before completing its tenure through a no-confidence motion.

Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

A constitutional government by definition is a (2020)

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) limited government

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: A constitutional government is one that operates under a written or unwritten constitution, which sets limits on governmental power and ensures individual liberties. In India, the Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution act as checks against arbitrary state action.
Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect:
A constitutional government may or may not have a legislature.
It is not necessarily a multi-party government.
It does not always imply a popular government, as constitutional monarchies also follow constitutional principles.

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (2017)

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: J.A. Schumpeter’s theory of democracy emphasizes that democracy’s strength lies in the engagement of ordinary citizens in governance. Unlike authoritarian regimes, democracy empowers individuals to participate in decision-making, fostering an environment where their intelligence, character, and civic responsibility are actively involved.
Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect:
Democracy does not focus solely on executive leadership.
It does not revolve around a single leader with vision.
It is broader than just the efforts of party workers—it is about widespread public participation.

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015)

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: India follows a Parliamentary System, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is responsible to the legislature (Lok Sabha). This is enshrined in Article 75, which states that the Council of Ministers (CoM), led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, the government must resign.
Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect:
While the Lok Sabha is directly elected, this alone does not define a parliamentary system.
Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution is significant but does not distinguish it as a parliamentary system.
The Rajya Sabha’s permanence (it is not subject to dissolution) is a feature of the system but does not define its parliamentary nature.

Consider the following statements: (2014)

A Constitutional Government is one which:

Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A constitutional government does not exist to impose restrictions on individual liberty for the benefit of state authority. Instead, it seeks to protect individual rights from excessive government control.
Statement 2 is correct: A constitutional government limits the authority of the state to prevent it from infringing on individual freedoms. This is achieved through principles like separation of powers, checks and balances, and judicial review.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

PRESIDENT

Consider the following statements in respect of the election to the President of India: (2023)
The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher is the value of the vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to the total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 54, only elected members of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies (including Delhi and Puducherry) are part of the Electoral College. Nominated members are not included.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The vote value of an MLA is based on the ratio of the total population to the total number of elective seats in the state, not just the number of seats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The vote value of an MLA in Madhya Pradesh is less than that of Kerala because the population-to-seat ratio in Kerala is higher.
Statement 4 is correct: Since Puducherry has a higher population-to-seat ratio than Arunachal Pradesh, the value of a Puducherry MLA’s vote is higher than that of an Arunachal Pradesh MLA.

Vote value of MLA and MP:

Consider the following statements: (2023)
If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of the office of President before the date of the decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: If the Supreme Court declares the Presidential election void, acts done before the judgment remain valid.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The election for the President cannot be postponed due to the dissolution of some State Assemblies. The electoral college is determined at the time of the election.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The President has no time limit to approve or withhold assent to a Bill. The Constitution is silent on the time frame.

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: (2018)
The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The value of each MLA’s vote is different for each State because it is calculated based on the population of the State divided by the number of elected MLAs.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The value of each MP’s vote is the same for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members. It is calculated as:

Consider the following statements: (2015)
The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 53(1) of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him, in accordance with the Constitution. The Prime Minister is the head of government, but executive power is constitutionally vested in the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Cabinet Secretary, not the Prime Minister, is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The Civil Services Board is responsible for matters related to civil service appointments, postings, and tenure policies.

Consider the following statements: (2014)
The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 77(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the President shall make rules for the convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of such business.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 77(1) states that all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister. This reinforces the principle that the President is the constitutional head of the executive, even though the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.

VICE-PRESIDENT

Consider the following statements: (2014)

The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not members of that House.
While the nominated members of the two Houses of Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (as per Article 64 of the Constitution). However, the Vice President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected from among its members, meaning the Deputy Chairman must be a member of the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct:
Nominated members of Parliament do not have the right to vote in the Presidential election (as per Article 54), which consists of only elected MPs and MLAs.
However, nominated members are allowed to vote in the election of the Vice President since Article 66(1) states that all members of both Houses of Parliament (elected and nominated) participate in the election of the Vice President.

PARLIAMENT

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2024)
Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House while it is in session.
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers while proroguing a House. He does not do so independently.
Statement 2 is correct:
Generally, prorogation follows adjournment sine die, but there is no constitutional bar on the President proroguing a House while it is in session.
Statement 3 is correct:
The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President under Article 85(2)(b). However, in most cases, the President does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
The only exception is when a no-confidence motion leads to the fall of the government, and no alternative government can be formed, in which case the President may dissolve the Lok Sabha at their discretion.

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: (2024)
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
A bill in regard to which the President of India has notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses when the House is dissolved, regardless of whether it originated in the Lok Sabha or was transmitted from the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct:
If the Lok Sabha has passed a bill but it is still pending in the Rajya Sabha, the bill lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
If the President has notified the summoning of a joint sitting of both Houses before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the bill does not lapse.
Only if the President has not notified a joint sitting, does the bill lapse.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (2024)

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:

He/she shall not preside.
He/she shall not have the right to speak.
He/she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
As per Article 96 of the Indian Constitution, when a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside over the sitting of the House. However, they may still be present during the discussion.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings while the resolution is under consideration.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
The Speaker can vote in the first instance on the resolution, just like any other member. However, in case of a tie, they cannot exercise a casting vote.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? (2024)
Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to the unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha was initially constituted as an ad-hoc committee in 2000 during the tenure of Speaker G M C Balayogi.
It became a permanent committee in 2015.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Any person can file a complaint against a Lok Sabha member, but it must be submitted through another Lok Sabha MP.
If the complaint is submitted directly by a Member of Parliament (MP), no affidavit is required.
If submitted by a non-MP, an affidavit stating that the complaint is not false, frivolous, or vexatious is required.
Statement 3 is correct:
The Ethics Committee does not entertain complaints based solely on media reports or on matters that are sub judice (under judicial consideration).

Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Q5: With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (2022)

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House, and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of the Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker fixes the date of election for the Deputy Speaker, whereas the President fixes the date for the Speaker’s election.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory provision requiring the Deputy Speaker to be from the ruling or opposition party. It is just a convention to offer the position to the opposition.
Statement 3 is correct: The Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over the House, and no appeal can be made against his rulings.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no parliamentary rule stating that the motion for electing the Deputy Speaker must be moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister.

Q6: Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022)

To ratify the declaration of Emergency.
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
To impeach the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The declaration of Emergency must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, not just the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: A no-confidence motion can only be moved in the Lok Sabha. If passed, the Council of Ministers must resign.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The impeachment of the President can be initiated in either House of Parliament as per Article 61 of the Constitution. It requires a two-thirds majority in both Houses.

Q7: Consider the following statements regarding Ministers in India: (2022)

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks: Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not classify ministers into four categories. It only mentions the term “Council of Ministers”. The classification (Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister) is based on executive practice, not the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: As per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, the total number of ministers in the Union Government cannot exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This amendment was introduced to prevent the excessive expansion of the ministry and promote efficient governance.

Q8: Consider the following statements regarding contesting elections in India: (2021)

In India, there is no law restricting candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from multiple constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections in constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of winning all.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a candidate can contest elections from a maximum of two constituencies.
Statement 2 is correct/incorrect: There is historical evidence that Devi Lal contested from three constituencies (Sikar, Rohtak, and Ferozepur) in the 1991 Lok Sabha elections. However, due to confusion over the exact details, UPSC cancelled this question.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no legal provision that requires a candidate or their party to bear the cost of bye-elections if they vacate a seat after winning multiple constituencies. The Election Commission of India (ECI) bears the cost of elections and bye-elections.

Q9: With reference to the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? (2020)

MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis, and unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all work under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: MPLADS funds must be used for creating durable community assets related to health, education, drinking water, sanitation, roads, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: MPs must allocate at least 15% of their MPLADS entitlement for the year for Scheduled Caste (SC) populations and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe (ST) populations.
Statement 3 is incorrect: MPLADS funds are non-lapsable, meaning unused funds get carried forward to the next year.
Statement 4 is correct: The district authority must inspect at least 10% of the works undertaken in their district every year.

Q10: Consider the following statements regarding ministers and elections in India: (2020)

According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offense and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after release.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 173(a) of the Constitution states that a person must be a member of the Legislature to be a minister. If a non-member is appointed as a minister, they must get elected within six months; however, being a voter alone is not sufficient to qualify as a minister.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, a person sentenced to two years or more in prison is disqualified from contesting elections. However, this disqualification lasts only for six years after their release, meaning it is not permanent.

Q11: Consider the following statements regarding the summoning of Parliament: (2020)

The President of India can summon a session of Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
There is no minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 85(1) of the Constitution, the President has the power to summon Parliament to meet at any place he/she deems fit. However, the gap between two sessions must not exceed six months.
Statement 2 is incorrect: By convention (not provided by the constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, and Winter). However, the Constitution does not mandate all three sessions.
Statement 3 is correct: There is no constitutional provision specifying a minimum number of days that Parliament must meet in a year.

Q12: Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in (2020)

(a) The matter of creating new All India Services

(b) Amending the Constitution

(d) Making cut motions

Answer: (b) Amending the Constitution

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in amending the Constitution under Article 368. Any amendment must be passed by both Houses with a special majority.
Option (a) is incorrect: Rajya Sabha has exclusive powers regarding the creation of new All India Services under Article 312.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Council of Ministers is responsible only to the Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha. No-confidence motions can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
Option (d) is incorrect: Cut motions, which seek to reduce budget allocations, are part of the Money Bill process, where Rajya Sabha has no power.

Q13: Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before Parliament, including “The Macro Economic Framework Statement.” This document is presented because it is mandated by: (2020)

(a) Long-standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003

Answer: (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003

Explanation:

Option (d) is correct: The FRBM Act, 2003 aims to maintain fiscal discipline by setting targets for government borrowing, fiscal deficits, and public debt. Under this Act, the Central Government must present the Macro-Economic Framework Statement to Parliament annually.
Options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect: This requirement is not based on parliamentary convention or constitutional articles.

Q 14. Consider the following statements about the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959: (2019)

This Act exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The Act has been amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 was enacted to exempt certain offices from disqualification under Article 102(1)(a), allowing MPs to hold these offices without being disqualified for holding an ‘Office of Profit’.
Statement 2 is correct: This Act has been amended five times to expand the list of exempted offices.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The term ‘Office of Profit’ is not explicitly defined in the Constitution. Instead, it is interpreted by courts based on Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a).

Q15: In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (2019)

Ad Hoc Committee set up by Parliament
Parliamentary Department-Related Standing Committee
Finance Commission
Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC)
NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3, and 4

(d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct:
Ad Hoc Committees are temporary committees set up by Parliament to investigate specific issues, including reviewing independent regulators.
Parliamentary Department-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) regularly examine the functioning of regulators in sectors like telecom, insurance, and electricity.
Option (b) is incorrect:
The Finance Commission deals with tax revenue distribution between the Centre and States, not regulatory oversight.
Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) was set up to recommend financial sector reforms, but it does not review independent regulators regularly.
Option (d) is incorrect: NITI Aayog plays a role in policy planning but does not review independent regulators.

Q16: Consider the following statements regarding the first Lok Sabha and the Leader of Opposition (2018):

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Communist Party of India (CPI), not the Swatantra Party, was the largest opposition party in the first Lok Sabha (1952-1957). The CPI won 16 seats, while the Swatantra Party was formed later in 1959.
Statement 2 is correct: The Leader of the Opposition was officially recognised in 1969. However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977 under the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The requirement for recognising the Leader of the Opposition is that the party must have 10% of the total Lok Sabha strength (i.e., at least 55 members in a 545-member house), not 75 members.

Q17: Which Parliamentary Committee scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the Executive is properly exercising its delegated powers? (2018)

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation ensures that the rules, regulations, and by-laws framed by the Executive under the authority of the Constitution or laws passed by Parliament remain within their delegated powers.
Option (a) is incorrect: The Committee on Government Assurances ensures that ministers fulfil promises or assurances made in Parliament.
Option (c) is incorrect: The Rules Committee is responsible for the framing and amendment of the rules of procedure for the conduct of parliamentary business.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Business Advisory Committee allocates time for discussions and determines the schedule of Parliament’s business.

Q18: Regarding Money Bills, which of the following statements is NOT correct? (2018)

(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.

(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.

(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.

Explanation:

Option (c) is incorrect: According to Article 110, a Money Bill does not include provisions related to the Contingency Fund of India. It only deals with money appropriated from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Option (a) is correct: Money Bills deal with taxation matters.
Option (b) is correct: Money Bills can have provisions regarding custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or Contingency Fund of India.
Option (d) is correct: Money Bills include provisions for borrowing and guarantees by the Government of India.

Q19: For election to the Lok Sabha, who can file a nomination paper? (2017)

(a) Anyone residing in India.

(b) A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(d) Any citizen of India.

Answer: (c) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a Lok Sabha candidate must be a citizen of India and an elector (voter) in any parliamentary constituency.
Option (a) is incorrect: Mere residency does not qualify someone to file a nomination.
Option (b) is incorrect: A candidate does not have to be a resident of the same constituency they are contesting from.
Option (d) is incorrect: Simply being a citizen of India is not enough—the candidate must also be a registered voter.

Q20: Consider the following statements about elections in India (2017):

In a Lok Sabha or State Assembly election, the winning candidate must get at least 50% of the votes polled to be declared elected.
According to the Constitution of India, in the Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s post to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: India follows the First-Past-the-Post (FPTP) electoral system, where a candidate only needs the most votes (plurality), not necessarily 50% of the total votes polled.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the Lok Sabha members under Article 93. There is no constitutional requirement that the Deputy Speaker must be from the Opposition—this is a convention, not a rule.

Q21: The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through which of the following? (2017)

Adjournment motion
Question Hour
Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

The Parliament controls the Council of Ministers through multiple mechanisms:

Adjournment Motion: Used to bring a matter of urgent public importance before the House, often related to government actions or policies.
Question Hour: The first hour of a parliamentary session is used for questioning ministers on government policies and actions.
Supplementary Questions: These are follow-up questions asked by MPs to seek further clarifications from ministers during Question Hour.

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017)
A private member’s bill is a bill introduced by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but nominated by the President of India.
Recently, for the first time in Indian parliamentary history, a private member’s bill has been passed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A private member’s bill can be introduced by any Member of Parliament (MP) who is not a minister. In contrast, a bill introduced by a minister is termed a government bill. Private members’ bills typically reflect the priorities or viewpoints of the opposition or individual MPs rather than the government’s stance. Due to this, the chances of such bills being passed are lower, and their rejection does not affect the government’s stability.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Since independence, around 14 private members’ bills have been passed by Parliament. Some notable examples include The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 1956, The Orphanages and Other Charitable Homes (Supervision & Control) Bill, 1960, and The Marine Insurance Bill, 1959.

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the: (2016)

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Solution: (d)

Explanation:

As per Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can enact legislation on a subject from the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution stating that it is necessary in the national interest.

The resolution must be passed by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha.
The phrase “present and voting” means that the total membership of the Rajya Sabha is not considered—only those members who are actually voting at that time.
Once the resolution is passed, Parliament gains the power to legislate on the subject for a limited period of one year, which can be extended by subsequent resolutions.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)
A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 107(3) of the Constitution, a Bill does not lapse merely due to prorogation (i.e., the temporary suspension of a parliamentary session). Prorogation does not affect the status of bills pending in Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: If a Bill is pending in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been passed by the Lok Sabha, it does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It can be reintroduced in the next session of Parliament.

Rules for Bills Lapsing in Parliament:

Bills that lapse upon the dissolution of Lok Sabha:

Any Bill pending in the Lok Sabha (whether originally introduced there or transmitted from the Rajya Sabha).
Any Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but still pending in the Rajya Sabha.

Bills that do not lapse upon the dissolution of Lok Sabha:

A Bill already passed by both Houses but awaiting the President’s assent.
A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha.
A Bill that has been returned by the President for reconsideration.
A Bill under dispute between the two Houses, where the President has already notified a joint sitting before the Lok Sabha’s dissolution.
Consider the following statements: (2015)
The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill.
The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 109 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It can, however, make recommendations, but the Lok Sabha has the final authority to accept or reject them. Additionally, Rajya Sabha must return the bill within 14 days, failing which it is deemed to have been passed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The Demands for Grants (which detail the government’s budgetary expenditures) are exclusively voted upon in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can discuss them but cannot vote on them. This is in line with Article 113 of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget). However, since it does not have financial powers, it cannot approve or reject the budget. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept.

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, it has to be passed by: (2015)

(a) A simple majority of members present and voting

(b) A three-fourths majority of members present and voting

(d) An absolute majority of both Houses

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

As per Article 108 of the Constitution, a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can be convened by the President of India to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over a bill.

A bill is considered deadlocked if:

The bill is rejected by the other House.
The Houses have disagreed on amendments to the bill.
More than six months have passed since the other House received the bill, but it has not been passed.

In a joint sitting, the bill must be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting (more than 50% of the members who are actually voting, regardless of the total strength of Parliament). This ensures that government bills, which usually have support in the Lok Sabha, can still pass even if the Rajya Sabha opposes them.

A Joint Sitting of Indian parliament has been called for only three bills:

Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961.
Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978.
Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: (2014)
There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution does not explicitly mention the No-Confidence Motion. Instead, parliamentary procedures, including the No-Confidence Motion, are governed by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. This motion allows the Lok Sabha to assess whether the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, enjoys the confidence of the House.
Statement 2 is correct: A No-Confidence Motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, as per Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to initiate a No-Confidence Motion against the government. To introduce such a motion, at least 50 members of the Lok Sabha must support it. If accepted, it is debated and voted upon, and if the government loses, it must resign.

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (2014)

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee in terms of membership. It was established in 1950 based on the recommendation of economist John Mathai. It consists of 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha. Ministers cannot be members of this committee. Its primary function is to examine the budget estimates and suggest measures for economy and efficiency in government spending.
Other committees and their sizes:
Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Comprises 22 members—15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. It examines how government funds are spent.
Committee on Public Undertakings: Also has 22 members—15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. It evaluates the financial performance of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
Committee on Petitions: Has a minimum of 15 members (Lok Sabha only). It examines petitions submitted to Parliament by citizens.

Thus, the Estimates Committee is the largest among them.

Which of the following is/are function(s) of the Cabinet Secretariat? (2014)
Preparation of agenda for Cabinet meetings
Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees
Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for preparing the agenda for Cabinet meetings. It acts as a coordinating body between various ministries and ensures smooth decision-making at the highest level of government.
Statement 2 is correct: The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretariat assistance to various Cabinet Committees, which handle specific policy areas such as economic affairs, security, and infrastructure. The Prime Minister has direct control over the Cabinet Secretariat, and the Cabinet Secretary is its administrative head.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The allocation of financial resources to ministries is not the function of the Cabinet Secretariat. Instead, this responsibility falls under the Ministry of Finance, which prepares the Union Budget and distributes financial resources accordingly.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 1 and 2 only.

Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts: (2014)
It consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
It scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
It examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC) consists of 22 members—15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. The members are elected annually and serve one-year terms. The Chairperson of the PAC is usually from the opposition party to ensure transparency in reviewing government expenditures.
Statement 2 is correct: The PAC plays a crucial role in scrutinizing appropriation and finance accounts of the government. It ensures that public funds are spent legally and efficiently in accordance with Parliament’s approval.
Statement 3 is correct: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India audits government accounts and submits reports to Parliament. The PAC examines these reports to verify if the government has misused or misappropriated funds. The committee is instrumental in holding the government accountable for its financial decisions.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

JUDICIARY

Consider the following statements regarding Contempt of Court: (2022)
Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4

(d) 3 only

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The H.N. Sanyal Committee was formed to examine issues related to contempt of court. Based on its recommendations, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted to define and regulate contempt proceedings in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to punish for contempt under Article 129 and Article 215, respectively.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define Civil Contempt or Criminal Contempt. These definitions are provided in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
Statement 4 is correct: Article 142(2) of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws related to contempt of court.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1, 2, and 4.

With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)
Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Councils have the power to lay down rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Advocates Act, 1961 defines an advocate as a person enrolled in the State Bar Council. It does not exclude corporate lawyers or patent attorneys from recognition. Corporate lawyers and patent attorneys may practice law in specific areas but must meet Bar Council requirements to appear in courts.
Statement 2 is correct: The Bar Council of India (BCI) regulates legal education and law colleges. It sets standards for law courses, eligibility criteria, and professional conduct.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (2021)
Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India, with prior permission from the President.
A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment, just like the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 128 of the Indian Constitution allows the Chief Justice of India (CJI), with the President’s consent, to recall a retired Supreme Court or High Court judge to serve temporarily in the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 215 grants High Courts the power to review their own judgments as they are courts of record, similar to the Supreme Court under Article 137.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of judges in India: (2019)
The motion to impeach a Supreme Court judge cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
The Constitution defines ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior’ for the removal of judges.
The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 provides details of the impeachment process for Supreme Court judges.
If an impeachment motion is taken up for voting, it requires approval by each House of Parliament with a majority of its total membership and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 states that a removal motion (signed by 100 Lok Sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members) is submitted to the Speaker/Chairman, who has the discretion to accept or reject it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define “incapacity” or “proved misbehavior.” These terms are left undefined and subject to interpretation by Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 governs the impeachment process of judges.
Statement 4 is correct: To remove a judge, the motion must be passed by each House of Parliament with:
A majority of the total membership
Two-thirds of the members present and voting

Thus, the correct answer is (c) 3 and 4 only.

With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following best describes Article 142? (2019)

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in exercising its powers by laws made by Parliament.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Article 142 gives the Supreme Court the power to pass any order necessary for complete justice in a case. It overrides ordinary laws and allows the Court to act beyond existing statutes if required.
Why other options are incorrect?
(a) Incorrect: Election Commission’s decisions can be challenged in the Supreme Court or High Courts.
(c) Incorrect: The President cannot declare a Financial Emergency (Article 360) without the Union Cabinet’s recommendation.
(d) Incorrect: State legislatures can make laws on Concurrent List subjects even without Union concurrence, unless it contradicts a Central law.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by Parliament.

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? (2015)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Supreme Court of India

Solution: (d) The Supreme Court of India

Explanation:

The custodian of the Constitution is responsible for interpreting and upholding the provisions of the Indian Constitution. This includes ensuring that laws and government actions are in line with constitutional principles.
Option (d) is correct: Under Article 32, the Supreme Court has the power to enforce fundamental rights through writ jurisdiction. It is the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution.
The Supreme Court can review laws and strike down any that violate the Constitution, making it the ultimate custodian of the Constitution.

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in: (2014)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament

(d) The Law Commission

Solution: (b) The Parliament

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Under Article 124(1), the Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice of India (CJI) and other judges as prescribed by Parliament.
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2019 increased the number of Supreme Court judges from 31 to 34 (including the CJI).
The President appoints judges but does not decide their number. The Chief Justice of India or Law Commission may recommend changes, but only Parliament can officially increase the number of judges.

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its: (2014)

(a) Advisory jurisdiction

(b) Appellate jurisdiction

(d) Writ jurisdiction

Solution: (c) Original jurisdiction

Explanation:

Option (c) is correct: Article 131 grants the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction over disputes between:
The Government of India and one or more States.
Two or more States.
The Government of India and a State(s) on one side vs. another State(s) on the other side.
This means that only the Supreme Court can handle such federal disputes, ensuring a neutral resolution.
The Advisory jurisdiction (Article 143) allows the President to seek legal advice from the Supreme Court, but it is not binding.
The Appellate jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court to hear appeals from lower courts.
Writ jurisdiction (Article 32) deals with the enforcement of fundamental rights.

In India, Judicial Review implies: (2017)

(a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases.

Solution: (a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions.
Key Articles related to Judicial Review:
Article 13: Declares any law violating fundamental rights as void.
Article 32 & 226: Empower the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, to enforce fundamental rights.
Article 136 & 142: Provide powers to the Supreme Court for ensuring justice.
Judicial Review ensures that laws and policies do not violate constitutional principles. However, the Judiciary does not question the wisdom of the Legislature (Option b is incorrect).
Option (c) is incorrect: Courts review laws after they are enacted, not before the President assents to them.
Option (d) is incorrect: The Judiciary can review its past judgments (through review petitions), but that is not the primary meaning of Judicial Review.

With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: (2014)
Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of society on the basis of equal opportunity.
It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society, ensuring that justice is not denied due to economic or other disabilities.

Statement 2 is correct:

NALSA is responsible for formulating policies and guidelines for legal aid programs in India. It issues directives to the State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) and District Legal Services Authorities (DLSAs) to implement legal aid schemes, including Lok Adalats, legal literacy programs, and aid to marginalized communities.

Thus, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

STATE LEGISLATURE

Consider the following statements regarding the administration of prisons in India:

Statement-I:

In India, prisons are managed by State Governments, which have their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II:

In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, which explicitly placed the control of prisons under Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

The subject of ‘Prisons’ and ‘persons detained therein’ falls under Entry 4 of List II (State List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This means the State Governments have the exclusive authority to administer and regulate prisons within their respective jurisdictions. They formulate prison policies, maintain infrastructure, and oversee the rehabilitation of inmates. However, given the importance of prisons in the criminal justice system, the Ministry of Home Affairs provides guidance and policy recommendations to states and Union Territories on various aspects of prison management.

Statement 2 is correct:

The Prisons Act, 1894 was enacted during British rule and continues to serve as the primary legislation governing the management of prisons in India. It defines prisons, outlines prisoner rights and responsibilities, and delegates rule-making authority to State Governments under Section 59 of the Act. This law explicitly placed prisons under the control of the Provincial Governments, a structure that was later retained post-independence under the federal system of governance.

Since both statements are correct, and Statement-II provides the historical and legal basis for Statement-I, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly: (2018)
The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate their office if they cease to be a member of the Assembly.
Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate their office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly ceases to hold office under the following circumstances:

If they cease to be a member of the Legislative Assembly (e.g., resignation, disqualification, or loss of elections).
If they resign from office by submitting a resignation letter to the Deputy Speaker (and vice versa).
If they are removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Assembly (as per Article 179(c) of the Constitution).

Statement 2 is incorrect:

As per Article 179(a) of the Indian Constitution, if the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Assembly after dissolution. This ensures continuity and smooth functioning of the legislature during the transitional period.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Legislative Council of a State: (2015)
The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

As per Article 171 of the Constitution, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third (1/3rd) of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. However, the minimum strength of the Legislative Council cannot be less than 40 members (except for smaller states like Jammu & Kashmir, which have different provisions). Therefore, the Legislative Council can never be larger than half of the Legislative Assembly.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members of the Legislative Council themselves, not nominated by the Governor. The Deputy Chairman is also elected by the Council members. The Governor only nominates members to the Legislative Council (1/6th of its strength), not the Chairman.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

GOVERNOR

Consider the following statements regarding the recognition of Scheduled Tribes in India: (2024)
It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

As per Article 342(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India, in consultation with the Governor of the concerned State, is responsible for specifying tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribes for that particular State or Union Territory through a public notification. However, the final authority to include or exclude any community from the Scheduled Tribes list rests with Parliament through legislation. The Governor does not have independent authority to declare a community as a Scheduled Tribe.

Statement 2 is correct:

The Scheduled Tribe status is State/UT-specific. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one State may not be recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in another State. This means that a tribal community listed in one State may not automatically receive the same status if they migrate to another State or if they belong to a neighboring State.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: (2019)
The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

As per Article 176(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Governor addresses the State Legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and at the beginning of the first session of each year. This address outlines the policies and legislative agenda of the government for that session.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

Article 208 of the Constitution empowers State Legislatures to make their own rules regarding legislative procedures. While State Legislatures may choose to adopt certain Lok Sabha rules for guidance, they are not required to do so by default. The Speaker of the Assembly has the discretion to decide procedural matters in case of ambiguity.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Consider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State: (2018)
No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during their term of office.
The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during their term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

As per Article 361 of the Constitution, the Governor enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings during their term of office. No criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against them in any court while they hold office. However, civil proceedings may be initiated against them with prior notice of at least two months.

Statement 2 is correct:

As per Article 158, the Governor’s emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during their term of office. This provision ensures that the Governor remains independent and is not subjected to financial pressure from the State Government.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Secretary of a State: (2016)
The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

The Chief Secretary is appointed by the Chief Minister, not the Governor. The appointment is made through an executive order in the name of the Governor, but the final decision rests with the Chief Minister. The Chief Secretary is the topmost bureaucratic officer in a State and serves as the principal advisor to the Chief Minister.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

There is no fixed tenure for the Chief Secretary. Though the Administrative Reforms Commission (1969) recommended a minimum tenure of three to four years, in practice, the tenure depends on the Chief Minister’s discretion and can be changed at any time.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014)
Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President’s Rule
Appointing the Ministers
Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

Under Article 356, the Governor can send a report to the President recommending the imposition of President’s Rule in the State if they believe that the State Government cannot function in accordance with the Constitution. This power is considered discretionary, as the Governor is not bound by the advice of the State Council of Ministers in such matters.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

As per Article 164(1), the Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. This means the Governor does not have full discretion in ministerial appointments, except in situations where there is no clear majority in the Assembly.

Statement 3 is correct:

Under Article 200, the Governor has the power to reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the President’s consideration. This is an area where the Governor can exercise discretion, especially when a bill conflicts with central laws or the Constitution.

Statement 4 is incorrect:

The Governor does not have discretion in making rules for conducting the business of the State Government. Article 166 states that rules for the conduct of business are framed by the Governor based on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Supreme Court’s Nabam Rebia judgment (2016) reaffirmed that the Governor’s discretion under Article 163 is limited and must not be exercised arbitrarily.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.

CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? (2024)
Governor of the Constituent State
Chief Minister of the Constituent State
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The North Eastern Council (NEC) is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. It was established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971 and later amended in 2002 to strengthen its role as a Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern Region (NER).

The composition of the NEC includes:

✔ Governors of the constituent States – Representing the administrative head of each state (Correct)

✔ Chief Ministers of the constituent States – Representing the political leadership of the states (Correct)

✔ Three members nominated by the President of India – These members are experts or policymakers who assist in regional planning and development (Correct)

✖ The Home Minister of India is NOT a member of NEC (Incorrect)

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2, and 3 only.

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? (2024)

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

✔ Option (c) is correct: Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject, listed under Entry 81 of the Union List (Seventh Schedule). This means the power to legislate on quarantine measures that affect multiple states lies with the Union Government.

✖ Option (a) is incorrect: Inter-State trade and commerce falls under Entry 42 of the Union List, meaning the central government regulates it.

✖ Option (b) is incorrect: Inter-State migration is a Union subject, mentioned under Entry 81 of the Union List.

✖ Option (d) is incorrect: Corporation tax is a Union subject, covered under Entry 85 of the Union List.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

Consider the following statements: (2023)
According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, the confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

✔ Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 355 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Government has a duty to protect States from external aggression and internal disturbances and ensure that their governance follows constitutional provisions.

✔ Statement 2 is correct: Article 22 of the Constitution provides protections to individuals arrested or detained under preventive detention laws. However, the right to legal counsel is not extended to persons under preventive detention, unlike those arrested under ordinary laws.

✖ Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Section 32 of the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002, a confession made to the police can be used as evidence in court. This makes POTA different from standard criminal laws, where confessions to police officers are generally inadmissible.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) Only two statements are correct.

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014)
Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
Appointing the Ministers
Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

✔ Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, the Governor can send a report to the President recommending President’s Rule if he/she believes that the governance of the state is not being conducted in accordance with the Constitution.

✖ Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 164(1) states that the Governor appoints the Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. Since this appointment is not discretionary but rather a formal duty, it is incorrect to count it as a discretionary power.

✔ Statement 3 is correct: Article 200 gives the Governor the discretion to reserve bills passed by the State Legislature for the President’s consideration.

✖ Statement 4 is incorrect: Framing rules to conduct business of the State Government is not a discretionary power of the Governor, as this is done in consultation with the State Council of Ministers.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.

Q.5 With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District, and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 244(1) of the Indian Constitution, Scheduled Areas are designated as per the Fifth Schedule. The power to notify an area as a Scheduled Area lies with the President of India, who makes such a decision after consulting the Governor of the concerned State. This ensures that the recognition of tribal-majority areas remains under central oversight while considering state-specific conditions.
Statement 2 is correct: The administrative framework of Scheduled Areas is hierarchical. The district serves as the largest administrative unit within a Scheduled Area, while at the lowest level, these areas consist of a cluster of villages within a block. This classification helps in better governance and implementation of special provisions for Scheduled Tribes (STs).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The responsibility of reporting on the administration of Scheduled Areas lies with the Governor of the State, not the Chief Minister. Under Paragraph 3 of the Fifth Schedule, the Governor must submit an annual report to the President of India or whenever the President demands such a report. This special provision ensures direct oversight by the Union Government regarding the governance of Scheduled Areas.

Q.6 Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Sarkaria Commission (1983) recommended that the Governor should be an eminent individual from outside the concerned State to ensure neutrality. The Commission emphasized that the Governor must be a detached figure, without recent or deep-rooted political affiliations, to uphold the integrity of the constitutional position.
First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966): Suggested that Governors should be individuals with extensive public service experience and non-partisan attitudes.
Rajamannar Committee (1969): Proposed that the provision allowing the Governor to hold the State Ministry at their pleasure should be removed, reducing the discretionary powers of the Governor.
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000): Recommended that the President should appoint Governors only after consulting the Chief Minister of the respective State to avoid political favoritism.

The Sarkaria Commission’s recommendation remains significant as it sought to ensure that the Governor acts as an impartial constitutional authority rather than a political agent of the Union Government.

Q.7 The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a: (2014)

(a) Tax imposed by the Central Government

(b) Tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government

(d) Tax imposed and collected by the State Government

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Before the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017, sales tax was a State subject under the State List (Entry 54) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. It was imposed and collected by the State Governments, meaning the rate varied from one state to another.
Items like toothpaste, being consumer goods, were subject to Sales Tax or Value Added Tax (VAT), both of which were levied and collected by the respective State Governments.
After GST implementation, sales tax was subsumed under GST, which follows a dual structure where both the Central GST (CGST) and State GST (SGST) are levied simultaneously on intra-state transactions. However, before 2017, sales tax was solely under the State’s jurisdiction.

MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS

Q.1 How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? (2024)

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Delimitation refers to the process of defining the territorial boundaries of parliamentary and legislative assembly constituencies to ensure fair representation. It is conducted periodically to reflect changes in population as per the latest Census data.
In India, four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted:
1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952
1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962
1973 under the Delimitation Act, 1972
2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002
The legal basis for delimitation is provided in Articles 82 and 170 of the Indian Constitution, which mandate the reallocation of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats after every Census. The Delimitation Commission is an independent body established through an Act of Parliament and its orders have the force of law.

Q.2 Consider the following pairs: (2024)

Party	Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct: Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS) was founded in 1951 by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee as a political wing of the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), advocating for a nationalist ideology.
Pair 2 is incorrect: C. Rajagopalachari was not associated with the Socialist Party; instead, he founded the Swatantra Party in 1959, which opposed socialist policies and advocated for a free-market economy.
Pair 3 is correct: Congress for Democracy (CFD) was formed by Jagjivan Ram in 1977 after breaking away from the Congress Party. It later merged with the Janata Party.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party, not the Swatantra Party. The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in 1959 as an alternative to the Congress Party’s socialist policies.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Q.3 With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023)

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The primary role of Home Guards is to assist the police in maintaining internal security.
To prevent infiltration on international borders and coastal areas, special Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in certain states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Home Guards are not raised under a central law but under the Home Guards Act and Rules of individual States and Union Territories. Each state frames its own regulations regarding recruitment, training, and duties.
Statement 2 is correct: The Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police, assisting in maintaining internal security, disaster response, crowd control, and emergency management. They also help in maintaining essential services during strikes or unrest.
Statement 3 is correct: Special Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in border states like Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Meghalaya, Tripura, and West Bengal to support the Border Security Force (BSF) in preventing infiltration and cross-border crimes.

Thus, two statements are correct.

Q.5 Consider the following statements regarding the National Flag of India as per the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023)

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: (d)

Enhanced Explanation:

The Indian National Flag is a symbol of the country’s sovereignty and unity. Its usage is regulated under:
The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950
The Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971
The Flag Code of India, 2002, which consolidates all previous laws and conventions regarding the display of the flag.
Statement-I is incorrect: The Flag Code does not include 600 mm × 400 mm as a standard size. The officially recognized sizes include:
450 mm × 300 mm – Used on aircraft carrying VVIPs.
225 mm × 150 mm – Used on motorcars.
150 mm × 100 mm – Used as a table flag.
Statement-II is correct: As per the Flag Code of India, the National Flag must always be rectangular, with a length-to-width ratio of 3:2, irrespective of its size.

Thus, since only Statement-II is correct, option (d) is the correct answer.

Amendments to the flag code of India:

In 2021, the Centre amended the Flag Code of India, 2002 to allow the manufacture and use of machine-made and polyester National Flags. These were not allowed earlier under the Code.
As per the amended flag code, National Flags can also be used for hand-spun, hand-woven, or machine-made cotton, polyester, wool, silk, and khadi bunting.
In another amendment brought in 2022, the Centre allowed the National Flag to be flown both during the day as well as at night if it is displayed in the open or on the house of a member of the public. Under earlier rules, the Tricolour could only be hoisted between sunrise and sunset.

LOCAL GOVERNMENT

Q.1 Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in: (2017)

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralisation

(d) Direct democracy

Answer: (b)

Enhanced Explanation:

Democratic decentralisation is the process of transferring decision-making power from central authorities to local self-government institutions, ensuring people’s participation in governance.
The Panchayati Raj System (PRIs), introduced based on the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957), is a prime example of democratic decentralisation in India.
Local self-government institutions, such as Panchayats and Municipalities, allow for direct citizen involvement in decision-making and development initiatives at the grassroots level.
Federalism (option a) refers to the division of power between the central and state governments but does not specifically cover local governance.
Administrative delegation (option c) involves the delegation of authority without granting autonomy, whereas direct democracy (option d) implies that all citizens directly participate in decision-making, which is not the exact nature of local self-government.

Thus, democratic decentralisation (option b) is the best explanation for local self-government.

Q.2 Consider the following statements regarding the Panchayati Raj system: (2016)

The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of a Panchayat is 25 years.
A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder of the original term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, the minimum age for contesting Panchayat elections is 21 years, not 25 years.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 243E of the Constitution, if a Panchayat is dissolved before completing its five-year term, the newly elected Panchayat serves only for the remainder of the original term, not a fresh five-year term.
This provision ensures continuity in governance and prevents frequent disruptions in the local administration.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct (option b).

Q.3 With reference to the Gram Nyayalaya Act, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)

As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
The Act allows local social activists to act as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008, provides for the establishment of Gram Nyayalayas (village courts), which have jurisdiction over both civil and criminal cases.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act encourages dispute resolution through conciliation and allows the involvement of local social workers or activists as mediators to help resolve disputes outside formal court proceedings.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct (option b).

Q.4 The fundamental objective of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? (2015)

People’s participation in development
Political accountability
Democratic decentralisation
Financial mobilisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (c)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The Panchayati Raj system was introduced to promote grassroots democracy and people’s participation in governance. It aims at decentralisation of power to ensure effective decision-making at the local level.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While political accountability is a feature of democratic governance, it is not the primary objective of Panchayati Raj institutions. Their primary goal is self-governance and development, not just ensuring accountability.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial mobilisation (raising revenue) is an essential function of local self-government, but it was not the fundamental reason for establishing the Panchayati Raj system.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c): 1 and 3 only.

Q.5 The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (2014)

(a) To provide self-governance

(b) To recognize traditional rights

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

Answer: (c)

Enhanced Explanation:

The PESA Act, 1996, extends the 73rd Constitutional Amendment to Scheduled Areas (as per Fifth Schedule of the Constitution) and aims to empower tribal communities through local self-governance.
Its primary objectives include:
Strengthening self-governance in tribal areas through Gram Sabhas (option a).
Recognizing traditional rights of tribal communities over community resources (option b).
Protecting tribal populations from exploitation by empowering them to control resources, markets, and institutions (option d).
Statement (c) is incorrect: The PESA Act does not aim to create autonomous regions. Instead, autonomous regions are a feature of Schedule VI of the Constitution, applicable to certain Northeastern states, not to Scheduled Areas covered under Schedule V.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

ANTI-DEFECTION

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the

following statements (2022)

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any

political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding

officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes

disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political

party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes

his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party

within six months of taking his seat in the House.

Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify any time period for the

Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea under the Tenth

Schedule

CONSTITUTIONAL AND NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODY

Q.1 Consider the following criteria used for horizontal tax devolution by the Fifteenth Finance Commission: (2023)

Demographic performance
Forest and ecology
Governance reforms
Stable government
Tax and fiscal efforts

For horizontal tax devolution, how many of the above criteria were used other than population, area, and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Answer: (b)

Enhanced Explanation:

The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) was responsible for recommending the devolution of taxes between the Union and the states, both vertically (Union to states) and horizontally (among states).
Horizontal devolution is based on the principles of need, equity, and performance.
Apart from population, area, and income distance, the following additional criteria were used:

Demographic performance (12.5% weight) – Rewards states that have improved demographic indicators.
Forest and ecology (10% weight) – Recognizes states with forest cover and ecological significance.
Tax and fiscal efforts (2.5% weight) – Encourages better tax collection and fiscal management.

Governance reforms and stable government were NOT included as criteria.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) – only three criteria were used apart from population, area, and income distance.

Q.2 Consider the following statements: (2022)

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government that appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Attorney General of India (AGI) has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of Parliament or its committees but without voting rights (Article 88).
However, the Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor Generals do not have such rights. Hence, the statement is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The term of the Attorney General is not fixed by the Constitution.
He holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 76).
While it is a convention that the Attorney General resigns when the Council of Ministers resigns, it is not a constitutional requirement.

Thus, both statements are incorrect, and the correct answer is (d) – Neither 1 nor 2.

Q.3 At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (d)

Enhanced Explanation:

The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA) aims to recognize the forest rights of Scheduled Tribes (STs) and other traditional forest dwellers.
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for implementing this Act, as it primarily deals with tribal welfare and forest rights.
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is responsible for forest conservation, but not for implementing the FRA.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) – Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Q.4 Consider the following statements: (2017)

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a five-member body.
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
The Election Commission resolves disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (d)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The strength of the Election Commission of India (ECI) is not fixed in the Constitution.
It is determined by the President under Article 324.
Originally, the ECI was a single-member body (Chief Election Commissioner).
Currently, it is a three-member body (1 Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners).
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Election Commission of India (ECI), not the Ministry of Home Affairs, decides the election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections.
The ECI independently conducts elections, ensuring free and fair processes.
Statement 3 is correct:
The ECI has the power to recognize political parties, allot election symbols, and resolve disputes related to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Example: The ECI resolved disputes in parties like the Shiv Sena, AIADMK, and Samajwadi Party.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) – 3 only.

Q.5 Consider the following statements: (2014)

The Attorney General of India can—

Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
Be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha.
Speak in the Lok Sabha.
Vote in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
Under Article 76, the Attorney General of India (AGI) has the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, their joint sittings, and any Parliamentary Committee of which he is a member.
Statement 2 is correct:
The AGI can be a member of a Parliamentary Committee, though he is not a Member of Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct:
The AGI has the right to speak in Parliament and its Committees.
Statement 4 is incorrect:
The AGI does not have voting rights in Parliament because he is not an elected representative.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) – 1, 2, and 3.

Q.6 Consider the following organisations/bodies in India:

The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC)

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Enhanced Explanation:

Option 1 is correct:
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was originally a statutory body, established under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993.
It was granted constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018, which added Article 338B to the Constitution.
It is responsible for identifying socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs) and recommending measures for their welfare.
Option 2 is incorrect:
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
It is a statutory body, not a constitutional body.
Option 3 is incorrect:
The National Law Commission is a non-statutory, advisory body created by the Government of India to recommend legal reforms.
It is neither constitutional nor statutory.
Option 4 is incorrect:
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
It is a quasi-judicial body, not a constitutional body.

Thus, the only constitutional body among the four is NCBC, making the correct answer (a) – Only one.

Q.7 Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? (2014)

The Finance Commission
The National Development Council (NDC)
The Union Ministry of Rural Development
The Union Ministry of Urban Development
The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Finance Commission is established under Article 280 to recommend how tax revenues should be distributed between the Union and the States.
It is not directly involved in planning but rather in fiscal federalism.
Statement 2 is correct:
The National Development Council (NDC) was the highest decision-making body on development matters and worked with the Planning Commission (before it was dissolved in 2014).
It was responsible for reviewing and approving Five-Year Plans.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
The Ministry of Rural Development implements rural development programs, but it does not formulate overall economic planning.
Statement 4 is incorrect:
The Ministry of Urban Development focuses on urban infrastructure and governance, not national-level planning.
Statement 5 is correct:
The Parliament plays a crucial role in approving budgets and development plans, making it indirectly associated with planning.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) – 2 and 5 only.

GOVERNANCE

Q.1 With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2021)

The N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) – 2 only

Enhanced Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee (1950), in its report “Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central Government”, suggested:
Grouping of ministries for better coordination.
Improving personnel capabilities and working methods of the Organisation and Methods (O&M) Division.
However, it did not recommend that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for administrative reforms.
This recommendation was actually made by the First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), 1966.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of 1966 recommended the establishment of a Department of Personnel to handle administrative reforms and personnel matters.
In 1970, this Department of Personnel was created and placed under the charge of the Prime Minister.
Today, it is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions, with the Prime Minister as its minister-in-charge.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) – 2 only.

UPSC Indian Polity PYQs (2014-25) with Solved Answers

Answer: (c)

Solution: (c)

1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the Constitution of a country? (2023)

Solution: (c)

2. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? (2023)

Solution: (a)

3. Which one of the following best defines the term 'State'? (2021)

Solution: (a)

4. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)

Solution: (d)

5. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021)

Solution: (b)

6. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is: (2020)

Solution: (a)

7. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (2020)

8. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital? (2019)

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