INDIAN POLITY PYQ

Q.1 The landmark case of D. C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar in the Supreme Court is related to which one of the following powers of the Governor? CAPF 2022

A.To repromulgate ordinances.

B. To appoint a Chief Minister.

C. To grant pardon, etc.

D. To revise the emoluments and allowances of the MLAs.

Answer: A

Dr D.C. Wadhwa was a professor of economics in Pune and had filed a PIL challenging the general power of the Governor to re-promulgate various ordinances by the governor of Bihar.
Issues of the case- The issue in the case holds great constitutional law importance as the executive was taking over the power to him to legislate by way of re-promulgating the ordinances. This practice of the executive is a violation of the constitutional provision as every citizen has a right to be governed by laws made in accordance with the Constitution i.e. the legislature and not by-laws made by the executive.
Judgement: The Court, emphasizing the decision in DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar held that such a re-promulgation of ordinances constitutes a fraud on the Constitution. Ordinances are merely emergent powers that must be exercised when the Legislature is not in session and must be tabled before the Legislature when it is back in session. Re-promulgation is constitutionally impermissible for two reasons:
- Such an act attempts to circumvent the Legislature, which is the primary law-making authority;
- It defeats the purpose of Articles 123 and 231 which prescribe a limited power to issue ordinances.
It was further held that any act, right, privilege, obligation or liability to survive after an ordinance has ceased to operate, must satisfy three tests:
- That the effect of the ordinance is irreversible;
- That reversing the consequence of the ordinance is impractical;
- That there is a compelling public interest to continue the effect of the ordinance.
Thus, in DC Wadhwa Case, the Supreme Court held that the legislative power of the executive to promulgate ordinances is to be used in exceptional circumstances and not as a substitute for the law-making power of the legislature. Hence statement A is correct.

Q.2 The Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of: CAPF 2017

A. First administrative Reforms Commission

B. Gorwala Committee

C. Kripalani Committee

D. Santhanam Committee

Answer: D

CVC is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Union government.
It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government.
It was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). Hence D option is correct.
Initially, the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

CVC became a statutory body under Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

CVC is a multi-member body consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (chairperson) and not more than two vigilance commissioners.
They are appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and sealed on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of;

The Prime minister is the head.
The Union minister of home affairs.
The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.

The President can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any vigilance commissioner on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

The president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.
If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the president can remove him.

Q.3 Consider the following statements : UPSC 2023

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, of 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B.Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C.Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

'Prisons'/'persons detained therein' is a “State-List” subject under Entry 4 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Administration and management of prisons and prisoners is the responsibility of respective State Governments who are competent to take appropriate action in this regard.
However, given the significance of prisons in the Criminal Justice System, the Ministry of Home Affairs has been providing regular guidance and support to the States and UTs on diverse issues relating to prison administration. State Governments have their own rules and regulations for the day to day administration of prisons, maintenance of prisoners, and prescribing procedures. Hence statement 1 is correct.
In 1894, the draft bill became law with the assent of the Viceroy. It is this Act which forms the basis for the present day jail management and administration in India. This Act has hardly undergone any substantial changes since its inception.
However, the process of review of prison problems in India continued. In the report of the Indian Jail Committee 1919-20, for the first time in the history of prisons, 'reformation and rehabilitation' of offenders were identified as the objectives of prison. The Government of India Act 1935 resulted in the transfer of the subject of jails from the Central List to the control of Provincial Governments and henceforth reduced the possibility of uniform implementation of a prison policy at the national level. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.4 Consider the following statements : UPSC 2023

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under in Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

The Court has held in several judgments — Indra Sawhney v Union of India 1993; M Nagaraj v Union of India 2006 — that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4)¹ of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335,² which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,” while considering the claims of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the making of appointments to public services and posts. This was done while the Constitution does not define the term “efficiency of administration.”
Supreme Court assumed, the framers of the Constitution did not envisage that Article 16 would be limited by or subjected to Article 335. The phrase “efficiency of administration” was used as an exclusionary construct in the colonial and precolonial eras. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

Q.5 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

If the election of the President of India is declared declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None

Answer: D

ALL THE STATEMENTS ARE INCORRECT:
If the election of a person as President or Vice President is declared void by the Supreme court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The intervenes suggested that the word ""otherwise"" occurring in Article 62(2) of the Constitution contemplates a case of filling a vacancy occurring by the expiration of the term but where such vacancy cannot be filled up by completing the election before the expiration of the term by reason of dissolution of the Assembly. The interveners submitted that a vacancy could in such a case be filled up not later than six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
The submission of the interveners is unsound. The word ""otherwise"" does not refer to a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office for the obvious reason that the same is the subject matter of Article 62(1). The marginal note to Article 62 fully bears this out. Further, a President whose term has expired can continue to hold the office only under Article 56(1)(c) until this successor enters upon his office. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
A pocket veto is a legislative maneuver that allows a president or other official with veto power to exercise that power over a bill by taking no action (keeping it in their pocket, thus effectively killing the bill without affirmatively vetoing it. This depends on the laws of each country; the common alternative is that if the president takes no action a bill automatically becomes law. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.6 Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: UPSC 2023

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: A

Only option A is correct:
In 1992, the Supreme Court of India in the Mandal case judgement directed the Union government to create a permanent statutory body to examine the complaints of citizens belonging to backward classes (BC).
In 1993, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was set up.
In 2018, the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the Commission by inserting a new Article 338-B in the Indian constitution.
The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body that is constituted by a notification of the Union Government, with definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law.
The Act defined a consumer as a person who buys any goods or avails of service for final use.
It does not include a person who buys a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purposes.

Q.7 Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? CAPF 2022

A. Courts can interpret the Constitution and powers of different levels of the Government.

B. Sources of revenue for the Union Government and the State Governments are specified.

C. Powers of the Union and the States are specified in the Constitution.

D. Indian federalism is based on the principle of Separation of Powers.

Answer: D

India is not a true federal government because it combines features of a federal government and the features of unitary government which can also be called as a quasi-federal government.
The Supreme Court have the power to interpret the Constitution, and the powers of different levels of the government. The Supreme court acts as an umpire in case of disputes arising between different levels of the government in the exercise of their respective powers of dual objectives. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The sources of income as prescribed by the Constitution of India for the Central Government are: Taxes levied on all forms of income other than agricultural. Property (land) succession duties except what is levied on agricultural land. Hence statement 2 is correct.
There are 2 sets of government in India and that is union government and central government. Central government looks after the whole country and state government mainly works for the states. Working of both governments are different. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Division of power: Powers between central government and state government have been divided by Constitution of India. The seventh schedule of the Indian constitution provides how the division of powers is made between state and central government. Both central and state governments have separate power and responsibilities. India being a federal country doesn't follow the principle of separation of power in a strict sense. Hence statement D is incorrect.

Q.8 With reference to the constitution of India, consider the following: UPSC 2010

Fundamental Rights
Fundamental Duties
Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the constitutions of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

A. 1 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: B

NSAP stands for National Social Assistance Programme. NSAP was launched on 15th August 1995.
National Social Assistance Programme is a social security and welfare programme to provide support to aged persons, widows, disabled persons and bereaved families on death of primary bread winner, belonging to below-poverty-line households.
The NSAP at its inception in 1995 had three components namely:
- National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS,
- National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) and
- National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS). The National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS) was subsequently transferred on 1st April, 2001 from the Ministry of Rural Development to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Articles 41 and 42 of the Constitution recognizing the concurrent responsibility of the Central and the State Governments in the matter.
In particular, Article 41 of the Constitution of India directs the State to provide public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement and in other cases of undeserved want within the limit of its economic capacity and development. Hence option B is correct.

Q.9 Which of the following is/are source/sources of Law in India? CAPF 2022

Constitution of India
Statutes
Customary Law
Case Law

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1,2 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: D

Law, according to Justinian’s Digest, is “the norm of what is just and unjust.” The ancient Hindu belief held that ‘law’ is a command from God, not from any political ruler. It binds everyone, even the monarch, to obey it. As a result, ‘law‘ is a part of ‘Dharma.’ In Hindu law, the concept of ‘justice‘ is always present. Salmond defined law as “the corpus of ideas recognized and applied by the State in the administration of justice,” according to the major modern natural law scholar.
PRINCIPLE SOURCES OF INDIAN LAW- Hence all options are correct.

Customs or Customary Law
Judicial Decisions or Precedents
Statutes or Legislation
Personal Law e.g., Hindu and Mohammedan Laws etc.

Q.10 In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? UPSC 2023

A. The principle of natural justice

B. The procedure established by law

C. Fair application of law

D. Equality before law

Answer: A

Option A is correct.
Before the Maneka Gandhi case, the extent of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution was very limited. However, in the Maneka Gandhi case, the Supreme Court broadened the ambit of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution by declaring that due process of law is an inherent element of procedure established by law. Moreover, an individual’s life and freedoms can be taken away only when the following requirements are satisfied:
The law must be valid.
There must be a proper procedure.
That procedure should be just, fair, and not arbitrary.
If the procedure provided by law is frivolous, oppressive, or unreasonable, then it should not be considered a procedure at all. A system has to be reasonable or just in order to represent the idea of natural justice. Natural justice seeks to establish justice in the law.

Q.11 With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : UPSC 2023

When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None of the above

Answer: C

ALL THE STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT:
A Money Bill will always be a Finance Bill. However, a Finance Bill need not necessarily be a Money Bill.
Only those financial bills are money bills which contain exclusively those matters which are mentioned in Article 110 of the Constitution. These are also certified by the Speaker of Lok Sabha as money bills.
The Rajya Sabha has limited powers concerning a money bill:
It cannot reject or amend a money bill.
It can only make recommendations.
It must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, whether with or without recommendations.
Lok Sabha has more powers than Rajya Sabha concerning a money bill. Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
Case 1: If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the modified form.
Case 2: If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have passed by both Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any change.
Case 3: If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha.
It can be either rejected or amended by either House of Parliament. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses over such a bill, the President can summon a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock.
When the bill is presented to the President, he can either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for reconsideration in the Houses.

Q.12 Consider the following statements: CAPF 2018

Statement I:

In India, a majority of the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislatures.

Statement II:

Members of the Rajya Sabha elected by the State Legislative Assemblies need to have their domicile in the concerned State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

The Rajya Sabha also known as Council of States is the upper house in the Parliament of India. The Rajya Sabha unlike the Lok Sabha is not subject to dissolution. It has 250 members which also includes 12 members nominated by the President for their contributions to art, literature, science and social services.
As of 2023, Rajya Sabha has a maximum membership of 250, of which 238 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through open ballots, while the president can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The purpose of the Rajya Sabha was envisaged to hold dignified debates on important issues and to share the experience of seasoned persons who were expected to participate in the debate with an amount of learning. Federalism is not territory-related, hence domicile should not be a precursor for federal structure. Under the Government of India Act 1935, domicile was never a requirement. The Rajya Sabha as a Second Chamber has been setup differently than the US Senate where all the States have equal representation. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.13 Consider the following statements: EPFO 2015

Statement (I) : Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.

Statement (II) : Members of Parliament, eminent persons from industry and trade are the members of the Public Accounts Committee.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

The chairperson is appointed by the Lok Sabha speaker. The term of office of the members is one year. At present, the 16th Lok Sabha has no designated leader of opposition, however the Indian National Congress (INC) being largest opposition party has gotten the responsibility of heading the PAC. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The chairman of the committee public accounts is appointed by the speaker of the Lok sabha. The committee on public accounts comprises members in Lok sabha, members of Rajya sabha not the eminent persons of industry and trade. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.14 Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country? UPSC 2023

A. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

B. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

C. It defines and limits the powers of government.

D. It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: C

Most of the older constitutions limited themselves largely to allocating decision-making power and setting some limits to government power.
But many twentieth century constitutions, of which the Indian Constitution is the finest example, also provide an enabling framework for the government to do certain positive things, to express the aspirations and goals of society.
The Indian Constitution was particularly innovative in this respect. Societies with deep entrenched inequalities of various kinds, will not only have to set limits on the power of government, they will also have to enable and empower the government to take positive measures to overcome forms of inequality or deprivation.
Therefore, statement C is correct.

Q.15 Which of the following statements is/are correct? CAPF 2017

Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners.
Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only.
Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: B

Under the Indian constitution, certain fundamental rights are available only to the citizens, namely:
- Right against discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15);
- right to equality of opportunity in matter of public employment (Article 16);
- freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19);
- cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30);
- right to vote and become members of the union and state legislatures. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
According to Article 21: “Protection of Life and Personal Liberty: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.” This fundamental right is available to every person, citizens and foreigners alike. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.16 With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one
Only two
All three
None of the above

Answer: B

The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the President, after consultation with the State Government concerned. The same applies in the case of any alteration, increase, decrease, incorporation of new areas, or rescinding any Orders relating to “Scheduled Areas”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block. Most of the districts form scheduled areas only partially. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as head aids and advises Governor in exercise of his functions except in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. In respect of Nagaland, Governor has special responsibility under Article 371 A of the Constitution with respect to law and order and even though it is necessary for him to consult Council of Ministers in matters relating to law and order, he can exercise his individual judgement as to the action to be taken. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.17 In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? UPSC 2020

Person with an annual income of less than Rs.1,00,000
Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2,3 and 4 only

1,3 and 4 only

1,2,3 and 4

Answer: A

Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor and evaluate implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the Act.
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 states that those persons who have an annual income of less than the amount prescribed by the respective State Government, or if the case is before any court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs. 5 Lakhs, if the case is before the Supreme Court, are eligible for free legal aid.
For most of the States NALSA covers Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹ 1 lakh. Hence statement1 is correct.
ForDelhi, there is mention of Income celling for transgender in NALSA Portal, which is ₹ 2 lakh. Hence statement 2 is correct.
There is no such provision of free legal aid specifically for OBC, Hence statement3 is incorrect.
The free Legal Aid is not available for free for all senior citizens. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Q.18 Which of the following are the roles of the Finance Commission in India? EPFO 2015

The distribution of money collected through taxes
Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
Evolve principles based on which funds are alotted among States
To develop Five Year Plans

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 4 only

Answer: C

The Finance Commissions are periodically constituted by the President of India under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. The commission is constituted to make recommendations to the president about the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and also the allocation of the same among the States themselves.
Distribution of 'net proceeds' of taxes between the Center and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Determine factors governing Grants-in-Aid to the states and the magnitude of the same. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The principles which should govern the grants in aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance
The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them. Hence only 1 and 3 are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) is an attached office of NITI Aayog. Constituted in September 2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent Evaluation Office (IEO), DMEO works to fulfill the monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and to build the M&E ecosystem on India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
From 1947 to 2017, the Indian economy was premised on the concept of planning. This was carried through the Five-Year Plans, developed, executed, and monitored by the Planning Commission (1951–2014) and the NITI Aayog (2015–2017). Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Q.19 In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? UPSC 2023

A. 1st Amendment

B. 42^ndAmendment

C. 44th Amendment

D.86th Amendment

Answer: A

Option A is correct:
The First Amendment Act, 1951, added the fourth clause to Article 15 that empowered the government to make any law for the upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It reads, “Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.”. The added clause elucidates that in case such special provisions are introduced, they cannot be said to be breaching Article 15 and Article 29(2) of the Constitution.
The need to insert this clause was felt after the decision of the Supreme Court in the State of Madras v. Srimathi Champakam (1951). According to the facts of this case, the Madras government issued an Order that provided reservation on the grounds of religion, race, and caste. This Order was contended to be in breach of Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution. The Court also gave a literal interpretation to the constitutional provisions and held that reserving seats in public institutions for backward classes violates Articles 15(1) and 29(2). Therefore, in order to nullify the effect of similar judicial pronouncements, Article 15 was amended.
Similarly, Article 19(1)(a) grants the right to free speech and expression to Indian citizens. This right is considered an essential feature of democracy. However, Article 19(2) specifies the restrictions that can curtail this freedom. The First Amendment to the Indian Constitution altered these restrictions by widening their ambit. The second change, via the Amendment Act of 1951, was made to Clause 6 of Article 19.

Q.20 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2010

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact

on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
if he seeks such advice.
only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only

Answer: B

Article 143 Power of President to consult Supreme Court.–(1) If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon. Hence only statement 2 is correct.
While under Clause (2), it is obligatory on the Supreme Court to entertain a reference and to report to the President its opinion thereon, the Court has, under Clause (1) a discretion in the matter and may, in a proper case, decline to express any opinion on the questions submitted to it. For example:
- Where the question referred to is a political one, as distinguished from the constitutional validity of a Bill or Act.
- Where it is incapable of being answered.
- Where the question is hypothetical or speculative or superfluous. But the mere possibility that a pending Bill may undergo changes in course of legislation, would not make the question of constitutionality of a pending Bill hypothetical.
- Where it is vague--unless the vagueness is cleared by the written briefs and submissions of the parties before the court.
- Where the court considers that the question does not arise in the facts and circumstances of the case.
It is for the President to determine what question should be referred, including a pending Bill, on the other hand, the Supreme Court cannot go beyond the question referred and discuss other questions because any doubts may have arisen relating to them.

Q.21 Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1918)? UPSC 2020

Preamble
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

The universal Declaration of human rights (UDHR) is a milestone document in the history of human rights. Drafted by representatives with different legal and cultural backgrounds from all regions of the world, the Declaration was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10 December 1948 (General Assembly Resolution 217A) as common standard of achievements for all peoples and all nations.
The Preamble of India also speaks about “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Article 22 of UHDR Right to Social Security- These rights, mostly developed in the 20th century, include the right to work, an adequate standard of living, education, maternity and childhood, social security, and the right to take part in cultural life. Similar concepts are also present in the DPSP of Indian Constitution.
Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions has concentrated on rights that every person has simply by virtue of being born human. Now Article 29 says the corollary of rights is duties. We all have a duty to other people, and we should protect their rights and freedoms. A similar concept that was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A). Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.22 Which among the following is/are the functions/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? CAPF 2022

To ensure interministerial coordination
Management of major crisis situations in the country

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT:
The Cabinet Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the Government of India.
The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.
- The administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
- Works under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
He is responsible for the administration of the Transaction and Business rules and Allocation of business rules.
He ensures that the President, Vice President and Ministries are kept informed of the major activities of all Ministries/Departments by means of a monthly Summary of their Activities.
Manage the major crises in the country and Coordinate activities of various Ministries in such a situation.
Provide Secretarial Assistance:
- Convening of the meetings of the cabinet on the orders of the Prime Minister.
- Preparation and Circulation of the agenda.
- Preparing a record of discussions taken.
- Circulation of the record after obtaining the approval of the Prime Minister.
- Watching implementation of the decisions taken by the Cabinet.
- Custodian of the papers of the Cabinet meetings
- Acts as the chief coordinator of the central government
- Chairman of the Civil Services Board, which recommends the empanelment of officers (except officers under the Ministry of External Affairs), for the ranks of secretary, additional secretary and joint secretary.
- Chairman of the Conference of Chief Secretaries of States.
- Recommends postings of officers (except officers under the Ministry of External Affairs) of the rank of secretary and additional Secretary to the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
- Acts as a senior adviser to the Prime Minister.
- Assist the Council of Ministers.

Q.23 "Consider the following: UPSC 2011

Right to education.
Right to equal access to public service.
Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

The power of the Universal Declaration is the power of ideas to change the world. It inspires us to continue working to ensure that all people can gain freedom, equality and dignity.
The 30 rights and freedoms set out in the UDHR include the right to be free from torture, the right to freedom of expression, the right to education and the right to seek asylum. It includes civil and political rights, such as the rights to life, liberty and privacy. It also includes economic, social and cultural rights, such as the rights to social security, health and adequate housing. Hence all the statements are correct.
Article 21- Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or through freely chosen representatives. Everyone has the right of equal access to public service in his country.
Article 25- Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control.
Article 26- Everyone has the right to Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit.

Q.24 In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to? UPSC 2011

It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister's 15 Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: C

Article 30 mandates that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Hence statement 1 is correct.
There is no provision for the President of India to automatically nominate a member of a minority religious community to the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Ministry of Minority affairs is implementing the Prime Minister’s New 15 Point Programme for welfare of Minority Communities.
It covers various schemes/initiatives with an aim to ensure that the underprivileged and weaker sections of minority communities have equal opportunities under various Government welfare Schemes and also empower them to contribute towards socio-economic development of the Country.
The programme has the following broad objectives:
- Enhancing opportunities for education.
- Ensuring an equitable share for minorities in economic activities and employment, through existing and new schemes, enhanced credit support for self-employment, and recruitment to State and Central Government jobs.
- Improving the conditions of living of minorities by ensuring an appropriate share for them in infrastructure development schemes.
- Prevention and control of communal disharmony and violence. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q.25 In areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? UPSC 2012

Gram Sabha has the power to prevent the alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting a prospecting license or mining lease, for any minerals in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

According to Panchayat Extension to the Scheduled Areas Act 1996 Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas has the ownership of minor forest produce and the recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Gram Sabha in the Panchayat Act was entrusted with wide-ranging powers starting from consultation on land acquisition to that of ownership over minor forest produces and leasing of minor minerals. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be made mandatory prior to grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals in the Scheduled Areas. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.26 Which among the following is not a condition for the disqualification of a Member of Parliament ? CDS 2021

A. Voluntary acquisition of citizenship of a foreign country

B. Holding the office of the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women

C. The Member abstains from voting in the House without prior permission

D. The Member holds the office of the Chairman of the Board of Directors of the National Coal Development of the National Coal Development Corporation Ltd.

Answer: B

A Member of Parliament holds a very crucial position in a multitiered parliamentary democracy like India. They are the ones who are the representatives of a legislative constituency in Lok Sabha (the Lower House of the Parliament of India).
Conditions for Disqualifications of the member-
If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government.
If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
If he is an undercharged insolvent.
If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state.
If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
The Parliament has prescribed several additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951).
He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections.
He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least a 25% share.
He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the state.
He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offence of bribery.
He must not have been punished for preaching and practising social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
To decide whether a member has become subject to any of the above disqualifications, the governor’s decision is final.
However, Governor should obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.
Therefore, Statement B is not the condition for disqualification of MP.

Q.27 Which of the following statements about the Committee on Public Undertakings is/are correct? CAPF 2022

There are more members from the Rajya Sabha than the Lok Sabha in the Committee.
The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B.2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D.Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

The Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) consists of 22 members, 15 elected by the Lok Sabha, and not more than 7 members by the upper house, the Rajya Sabha. Committee members are elected annually from among members of both houses by means of proportional representation through the single transferable vote. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
A Minister is not eligible to become a Member of the Committee. If a Member, after election to the Committee is appointed a Minister, that Member ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the Members of the Committee. The term of the Committee does not exceed one year. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.28 The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? UPSC 2012

Right of healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

It is a Statutory Body under National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010. It ensures environmental justice.
It is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure; it is guided by principles of natural justice.
Disposal of applications within 6 months. Currently, 10 expert members and 10 judicial members (the Act allows for up to 20 of each).
Only a Judge of the Supreme Court or a Chief Justice of a High Court Can be appointed as Chairman.
It was formed by replacing the National Environment Appellate Authority. It also draws inspiration from Article 21 of the India Constitution which assures to provide a healthy environment to the citizens of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Article 275(1) of Constitution of India for promoting the welfare of Scheduled Tribes or for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Gram Sabha is originally defined under Article 243 (b) of the constitution. Gram Sabha is primarily the base and is also known as the “Sabha ” of people. The elected representatives from all other institutions in the Panchayati Raj system, such as the Gram Panchayat, Block Panchayat, and Zilla Parishad. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.29 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2012

Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None

Answer: D

The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President. In total eight members are elected from the Union territories (3 from Delhi, 1 from Puducherry and 4 from Jammu & Kashmir). Other Union territories are not represented in Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Adjudication of Election Disputes Disputes relating to elections of the State Legislature and Union Legislature are adjudicated upon exclusively by the High Courts before whom election petitions under Section 80 and 80-A of the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Indian Parliament comprises of the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People). The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha. The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.30 Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha? CDS 2023

A. The Public Accounts Committee

B. The Committee on Public Undertakings

C. The Estimates Committee

D. The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Answer: C

The Committee on Estimates, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members.
The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Committee and if a member after selection to the Committee is appointed a Minister, the member ceases to be a Member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
The term of office of the Committee is one year.
The functions of the Estimates Committee are:
to report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates may be effected;
to suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration;
to examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates; and
to suggest the form in which the estimates shall be presented to Parliament.

Q.31 Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to the Lok Sabha under which of the following condition? CDS 2020

They must be citizens of India.
Their names must figure in the electoral roll.
They must be present in India to vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

An overseas citizen of India cardholder shall be entitled to such rights, as the Central Government may specify.
An overseas elector is a person who is a citizen of India and who has not acquired citizenship of any other country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a voter and who is absenting from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located. Hence all the statements are correct.
According to the provisions of Section 20A of the Representation of People Act, 1950, an NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in electoral roll in India.
An overseas citizen of India cardholder shall not be entitled to the following rights (which are conferred on a citizen of India);

He shall not be entitled to the right to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
He shall not be eligible for election as President.
He shall not be eligible for election as Vice-President.
He shall not be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
He shall not be eligible for appointment as a Judge of the High Court.
He shall not be entitled to register as a voter.
He shall not be eligible for being a member of the House of the People or the Council of States.
He shall not be eligible for being a member of the State Legislative Assembly or the State Legislative Council.

He shall not be eligible for appointment to public services and posts in connection with affairs of the Union or of any State except for appointment in such services and posts as the Central Government may specify.

Q.32 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2019

The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

39th constitutional amendment Act 1975 placed the election of the office of President, Vice President , Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the judicial review. Instead, a body constituted by the parliament would be vested with the power to resolve such election disputes. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The National Judicial Commission was established due to the 99th Constitutional Amendment. This amendment substituted the National Judicial Appointment Commission (NJAC) for the collegium system of appointing judges. However, the Supreme Court backed the collegium system and ruled that the NJAC was contradicting the basic structure principle and the judiciary’s independence. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.33 Which one of the following statements is not correct? CAPF 2022

A. A censure motion can be moved against a single Minister of the Council of Ministers.

B. A motion of no-confidence cannot be moved against the Prime Minister alone.

C. A censure motion cannot be moved against the entire Council of Ministers.

D. A censure motion can be moved against a group of Ministers.

Answer: C

A censure is a motion that is moved in the parliament or in a state assembly in India. It is moved by the opposition in the Parliament against a specific policy of the government or against any minister or the council of ministers. Option A is correct.
If the No-Confidence Motion is passed, it indicates that the government has lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha. In such a scenario, the Prime Minister and the entire Council of Ministers are required to resign. It is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not individual ministers or private members.
As per Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha, any member of the house can move a no-confidence motion. The written notice of the motion has to be given to the secretary general of the House by 10 am on any day of sitting of the House. Option B is correct.
censure motion can be moved in Lok Sabha or in a state assembly. While censure motion can be moved against individual ministers or members, no-confidence motion is moved against the entire council of ministers.
There is no impact on the government when a censure motion is passed, but the council of ministers have to resign and government collapses when a no-confidence motion is passed. Hence Option C is incorrect and D is correct.

Q.34 Which one of the following powers of the Supreme Court is also conferred on a High Court? CAPF 2021

A. Advisory power

B. Power of doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before the court

C. Power of court of record

D. Power to allow/refuse Special Leave Petitions

Answer: C

Articles 124 to 147 of the Constitution of India lay down the composition and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can broadly be categorized into three parts:
Original Jurisdiction
Appellate Jurisdiction
Advisory Jurisdiction
Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers upon the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction. Hence option A is incorrect.
Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe”. Hence Option B is incorrect.
Article 129 states, ‘Supreme court to be a court of record – the Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt for itself’.
Article 142 allows the court of record to punish for its contempt, subject to any other law made by parliament. Similar to Article 129, Article 215 grants a court of record powers to all different high courts throughout the country.
As a Court of Record, the High Court has two powers: The judgements, proceedings and acts of the High Courts are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any subordinate court. Hence option C is correct.
Power to allow/refuse Special Leave Petitions- It is discretionary power vested in the Supreme Court of India and the court may in its discretion refuse to grant leave to appeal. The aggrieved party cannot claim special leave to appeal under Article 136 as a right, but it is privilege vested in the Supreme Court of India to grant leave to appeal or not. Hence Option D is incorrect.

Q.35 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of formation of the Commissions starting from the earliest? CDS 2020

A. Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Investment Commission, Election Commission.

B. Election Commission, Planning Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission.

C. Planning Commission, Election Commission, Finance Commission, Investment Commission.

D. Investment Commission, Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Election Commission

Answer: B

Election Commission of India:
It is a permanent constitutional body.
Article 324 of the constitution establishes the Election Commission of India.
It was established on 25th January 1950.
Planning Commission- Inspired by the USSR/Soviet Model, Prime Minister established a Planning Commission on 15 March 1950 to design the five-year Plans for India.
In 2015, it was replaced by a new organisation named National Institution for Transforming India (NITI)
Finance Commission- It is a constitutional body constituted every 5 years by the President of India under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to define the Centre-states financial relations. The First Commission was established in 1951 under The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951.
The Investment Commission of India (ICI) is a three-member investment commission, set up in the Ministry of Finance in December 2004 by the Government of India. Ratan Tata is the Chairman and Deepak Parekh and Dr. Ashok Sekhar Ganguly, former Hindustan Lever chairman, are members.

Q.36 With reference to 'Organization for the Prohibitions of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)', consider the following statements: UPSC 2016

It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: C

It is the Hague-based autonomous body, which works within the framework of the United Nations, was established in 1997 by the Chemical Weapons Convention to carry out its mandate. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The OPCW's mission is to implement the Chemical Weapons Convention, the international agreement that bans chemical weapons, which are a grave threat to international security and humanity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The OPCW's mission is to implement the provisions of the Chemical Weapons Convention to achieve our vision of a world free of chemical weapons and the threat of their use, and in which chemistry is used for peace, progress, and prosperity. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q.37 Which one of the following statements about Public Accounts Committee is correct? CAPF 2021

A. The Committee consists of not more than 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.

B. The Finance Minister is an ex officio member of the Committee.

C. A member of the Committee is given a term for one year.

D. The term of the office of the members of the Committee from the Rajya Sabha is extended even when they retire from the Rajya Sabha.

Answer: C

About Public Accounts Committee

This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence.
At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Thus, all parties get due representation in it.
The term of the members is one year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Hence statement C is correct.
The chairman of the committee is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker.
Until 1966 - ‘67, the chairman of the committee belonged to the ruling party.
However, since 1967 a convention has developed whereby the chairman of the committee is selected invariably from the Opposition.
The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
The CAG submits three audit reports to the President, namely, audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings.

Q.38 The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through UPSC 2017

Adjournment motion
Question hour
Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, adjournment motion, no-confidence motion, etc.
The adjournment motion is a form of censure of the government. It originated in the House of Commons in the United Kingdom, and started its journey in India under the rules of the pre-independent bicameral legislature established under the Government of India Act of 1919.
- The central assembly and legislative council members could move the adjournment motion in their Houses.
Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting session of the Lok Sabha devoted to questions that Members of Parliament raise about any aspect of administrative activity. The concerned Minister is obliged to answer to the Parliament, either orally or in writing, depending on the type of question raised.
Supplementary questions are the follow-up oral questions that may be asked, without prior notice, during ministerial question sessions in both Houses.
Hence all statements are correct.

Q.39 Hooch & Bootlegging refer to: UPSC ESE 2021

A. the prohibition law on unethical practices related to liquor

B. laws against giving money to beggars as a generous act

C. food adulteration rules

D. laws on- checking the illegal business of duplicate goods

Answer: A

Bootlegging, in U.S. history, illegal traffic in liquor in violation of legislative restrictions on its manufacture, sale, or transportation.
Bootleg is a term used to describe illegal or illicitly produced goods. Specifically, it refers to alcoholic beverages that are made and sold without a license, often in violation of government regulations. The term originated in the United States during the Prohibition era, when the sale and consumption of alcohol was banned.
The term entered into the wider American vocabulary when the Eighteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution effected the national prohibition of alcohol from 1920 until its repeal in 1933.

Q.40 Which provision of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in India for the exercise.of powers of his office? CDS 2019

A. Article 53

B. Article 74

C. Article 361

D. Article 363

Answer: C

Article 361 in The Constitution Of India 1949:
The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties: Provided that the conduct of the President may be brought under review by any court, tribunal or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for the investigation of a charge under Article 61: Provided further that nothing in this clause shall be construed as restricting the right of any person to bring appropriate proceedings against the Governor of India or the Government of a State.

Q.41 Which of the following statements is/are correct? UPSC 2016

A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Whenever the discussion about Bill lapses comes in, it is to be noted that only the Lok Sabha or the Lower House, and the State Legislative Assembly is subjected to dissolution. No dissolution happens for the Upper House or the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Council. While Articles 107 and 108 of the Indian Constitution deals with the doctrine of lapses for the Union Legislature, Article 196 applies to the State Legislature.
Prorogation has no effect on a pending bill. All motions, resolutions, amendments etc. pending in the Lok Sabha lapse on its dissolution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
A bill that is pending in the Rajya Sabha and has not been passed by the Lok Sabha lapses in the case of dissolution of Lok Sabha. The Constitution of India also provides for the Joint Sitting Mechanism of both the houses of Parliament in order to resolve the deadlock and disagreement among both the Houses. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.42 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2016

The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Chief Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the state government.
The Chief Secretary is 'chosen' by the Chief Minister not the Governor. As the appointment of Chief Secretary is an executive action of the Chief Minister, it is taken in the name of the Governor of the State. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Chief Secretary is usually the senior most IAS officer of the senior most batch in the state. The appointee for the office is approved by state Chief Minister, based on appointee's ability and strong confidence with him or her. No fixed tenure is imposed on the office but term can be extended. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.43 Which of the following’ statements relating to the historic Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly, is/are correct? CDS 2018

The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages.
It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm resolve and a pledge.
It provided the underlying philosophy of our Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

“The Objectives Resolution, 1946” was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in the very first session of the Constitution Assembly. Basically, these resolutions were the aspirations of people who were making the Constitution.
It can be considered as the preamble of the vast dream, which the constitution makers sought to achieve after the independence in the form of a new India. And these resolutions were framed as the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Resolution was something more than a resolution. It was a declaration, a firm resolve, a pledge, an undertaking and for all of us a dedication.”. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Indian Constitution represents the aims and aspirations of the makers of the Indian Constitution. However, the making of every constitution requires a start, i.e. a philosophy. The Objective Resolutions provided the much-needed philosophy of the Indian Constitution and inspired in the shaping of the Indian Constitution. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q.44 The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the Emblem of India have been taken from which one of the following ? UPSC ESE 2017

A. Mundaka Upanishad

B. The Rig Veda

C. The Bhagavad Gita

D. Vaalmiiki's Ramaayana

Answer: A

Satyameva Jayate ( lit. 'Truth alone triumphs') is a part of a mantra from the Hindu scripture Mundaka Upanishad.
National Emblem of India: The State Emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath. In the original, there are four lions, mounted back to back, on a circular abacus, which itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus. The frieze of the abacus has sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras.
The profile of the Lion Capital showing three lions mounted on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the centre, a bull on the right and a galloping horse on the left, and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left was adopted as the State Emblem of India on January 26, 1950.
The bell-shaped lotus was omitted. The motto Satyameva Jayate, which means 'Truth Alone Triumphs', written in Devanagari script below the profile of the Lion Capital is part of the State Emblem of India.

Q.45 What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”? UPSC 2011

The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

An interim budget is presented when the government does not have the time to present a full budget or if there are general elections happening shortly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Vote on account is just an interim permission to spend money as against a full Budget which is an elaborate financial statement of expenditure and receipts including changes in taxes and government policies usually two months. Vote on account is a formality and requires no debate. Essentially, vote on account is the interim permission of the parliament to the government to spend money.
A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure side of the government’s budget while an Interim Budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts, akin to a full budget. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.46 Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. All four

Answer: B

As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The value of the vote of an MP in a presidential election is based on the number of elected members in legislative assemblies of states and union territories, including Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir. Higher the number of elected Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131 which is less than that of Kerala where it is 152. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry (16) is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8) because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, only two statements are correct.

Q.47 A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of- UPSC 2012

Ordinary Legislation
Money Bill
Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using codes the given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, who is the Vice President of India, doesn't preside over the joint session. If any of the above officers are not present then any other member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of both the House..
Exceptions: Money Bill
Under the Constitution of India, money bills require the approval of the Lok Sabha only. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations to Lok Sabha, which it is not required to accept. Even if Rajya Sabha doesn't pass a money bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses of Parliament after the expiry of the above period. Therefore, a requirement to summon a joint session can never arise in the case of a money bill.
Constitutional Amendment Bill: Article 368 of Indian constitution require that constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by 2/3 majority(special majority) . In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament.

Q.48 Which one of the following statements about the election of the President of India is not correct? CDS 2023

A Union Minister shall not be eligible for election as the President.

The President is elected by the elected members of the Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories

The Electoral College does not include elected members of the Legislative Councils

The system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote is followed

Answer: A

Qualifications for election as President

(1) No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he

(a) is a citizen of India,

(b) has completed the age of thirty five years, and

A person shall not be eligible for election as President if he holds any office of profit under the or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments Explanation For the purposes of this article, a person shall not be deemed to hold any office of profit by reason only that he is the President or Vice President of the Union or the Governor of any State or is a Minister either for the Union or for any State.
Hence option A is correct.

Q.49 The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of- UPSC 2019

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Lal Bahadur Shastri

C. Indira Gandhi

D. Morarji Desai

Answer: A

The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on fundamental rights.
1st Amendment Act, 1951

The state was empowered to make special provisions for the advancement of social and backward classes.
Secure The Constitutional Validity of zamindari abolition laws.
Schedule 9 was added to protect laws that are Contrary to Fundamental rights.
Introduced 3 grounds of restrictions on Article 19 (1) [Freedom of speech and expression] were added:

Public order
Friendly relations with foreign states
Incitement to an offence

Nehru was also very clear on the purpose behind the first amendment. The state wanted to pursue nationalisation, take away lands from the zamindars, re-distribute them, and make special provisions for the socially and economically backward.

Q.50 Who among the following American Presidents described democracy as "Government of the People, for the People and by the People"? NDA 2022

A. Abraham Lincoln

B. Thomas Jefferson

C. George Washington

D. John F. Kennedy

Answer: A

Abraham Lincoln became the United States’ 16th President in 1861, issuing the Emancipation Proclamation that declared forever free those slaves within the Confederacy in 1863.
Abraham Lincoln said, "Democracy is a rule of the people, for the people and by the people". It means that democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.

Q.51 The Constitution (35 Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States? NDA 2021

A. Mizoram

B. Sikkim

C. Nagaland

D. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: B

The status of Sikkim as a protectorate state was terminated and Sikkim was given the status of 'Associate State' of India. The state of Sikkim was given an associate status in the Indian Constitution in the year 1974.

Q.52 Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? UPSC 2017

A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Fundamental Duties are not legally enforceable. There is no legislative process to enforce them, and a citizen cannot be punished for failing to fulfill them. There is no legislative “process” to enforce these duties. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Fundamental Duties are intended to serve as a constant reminder to every citizen that while the Constitution conferred on them certain Fundamental Rights specifically, it also requires citizens to observe certain basic norms of democratic conduct and democratic behaviour because rights and duties are correlative. They are also not correlative to legal duties, as they do not correspond to specific legal obligations that a citizen must fulfill. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The fundamental duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, during Indira Gandhi’s Emergency. Article 51(A) describes 11 fundamental duties — 10 came with the 42nd Amendment; the 11th was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002, when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister.

Q.53 Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 : UPSC 2023

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

The standard sizes of the National Flag shall be as follows: Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Flag Size No 1 – Dimensions in mm = 6300 x 4200
Flag Size No 2 – Dimensions in mm = 3600 x 2400
Flag Size No 3 – Dimensions in mm = 2700 x 1800
Flag Size No 4 – Dimensions in mm = 1800 x 1200
Flag Size No 5 – Dimensions in mm = 1350 x 900
Flag Size No 6 – Dimensions in mm = 900 x 600
Flag Size No 7 – Dimensions in mm = 450 x 300
Flag Size No 8 – Dimensions in mm = 225 x 150
Flag Size No 9 – Dimensions in mm = 150 x 100
The ratio of width of the flag to its length is two to three. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.54 The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at: NDA 2023

A. Dehradun

B. Vairengte.

C. Gulmarg.

D. Mhow.

Answer: B

The Counter-Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School (CIJWS) in Vairengte, Mizoram, India is a training and research establishment of the Indian Army specialising in unconventional warfare, especially counter-insurgency and guerrilla warfare.

Q.55 Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct? NDA 2021

It enlarged the Governor General’s Council for the purpose of making laws.
The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Indian Council Act of 1861 was institutionalized to serve the necessities of cooperation of Indians in the administration of the country. The act restored the power of the Government and the composition of the Governor General’s council for executive legislative Purposes. It was the first instance in which the portfolio of Council of Governor-General was incorporated.
For legislative purposes, the Governor-General’s Council was enlarged. Now, there were to be between 6 and 12 additional members (nominated by the Governor-General).
There were appointed for a period of 2 years. Out of these, at least half of the additional members were to be non-official (British or Indian).
Their functions were confined to legislative measures. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

Q.56 Which of the following statements about the first Indian Factory Act passed in 1881 is/are correct ? NDA 2021

The Act dealt primarily with the problem of child labour.
The Act laid down that children between 7 years and 12 years of age would not work for more than 9 hours a day.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Lord Ripen's government saw the enactment of the first Indian Factory Act (1880-1884). In 1881, the first Indian Factory Act was enacted. In 1885, as a result of this Act, a Factory Commission was established. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It laid down that children below 7 could not work in factories, while children between 7 and 12 would not work for more than 9 hours a day. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.57 With reference to the parliament of India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2017

A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

A member of parliament (MP) who is not a minister is a private member. The Bills introduced by private members are referred to as Private Member’s Bills. The Bills introduced by ministers are called government Bills. The government bills have the backing of the government and reflect its legislative agenda. Whether the Private Bill has to be admitted or not is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
The Private Member’s Bills are either drafted by the member of parliament (MP) or his staff. The MP who wants to move a Private Member’s Bill has to give at least a month’s notice, for the House Secretariat to examine it for compliance with constitutional provisions and rules on legislation. While a government Bill can be introduced and discussed on any day, a private member’s bill is only introduced and discussed on Fridays. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
No Private Member’s Bill has been passed by the Parliament since 1970, according to PRS Legislative Research. So far, the Parliament has passed 14 such Bills, six of them in 1956. The 16th Lok Sabha (2014-19) witnessed the highest number of Private Member Bills introduced (999) since 2000. As many as 142 members have introduced Bills in the 16th Lok Sabha, of which 34 members have introduced 10 or more Bills. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.58 Over which of the following, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha held joint sittings to resolve their differences? CAPF 2018

The Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959
The Banking Services Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978
The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
The Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1,2 and 4 only

B. 1,3 and 4 only

C. 1,2 and 3 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: C

The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, who is the Vice President of India, doesn't preside over the joint session. If any of the above officers are not present then any other member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of both the House.
Since 1950, the provision regarding the joint sitting of the two Houses has been invoked only thrice. The bills passed at joint sittings are:
- Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960.
- Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977.
- Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.
Hence statement 1,2 and 3 are correct.

Q.59 Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? UPSC 2019

A. Third Schedule.

B. Fifth Schedule.

C. Ninth Schedule.

D. Twelfth Schedule.

Answer: B

Article 244 (1) The provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Area and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.”
The purpose of Scheduled Areas, as also recognised in several judgments, is to preserve the tribal autonomy, their culture and economic empowerment, to ensure social, economic and political justice, and preservation of peace and good governance.
It is with this object in mind that the Constitution created the Fifth Schedule which has famously been called “A Constitution within a Constitution”.
Thus, to safeguard cultural autonomy and empower the tribal the fifth schedule, the constitution defines the power of the transfer of the tribal land to private parties for mining.

Q.60 Which one of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is not correct? NDA 2021

A. He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India.

B. He shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

C. He shall be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

D. He shall give advice to the Government of India on all legal matters.

Answer: A

The Indian constitution under Article 76 has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
He is the highest law officer in the country.
He is appointed by the President of India.
He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the constitution. Further, the constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
He holds office during the pleasure of the president.

This means that he may be removed by the president at any time.
He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president.

Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the constitution. He receives such remuneration as the President may determine.
The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government.

He does not fall into the category of a government servant. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.

He represents the Union Government in any reference made by the president to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the constitution.
He appears (when required by the Union Government) in any high court in any case in which the Union Government is concerned. Hence statement A is incorrect.
While performing his official duties, the Attorney General has the right to an audience in all courts in the territory of India.
He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.

Q.61 Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct? CAPF 2018

The 'Objectives Resolution' was moved by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar served as the chairman of the Drafting Committee in his capacity as the Law Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

On 13 December 1946, the Constituent Assembly formally commenced its task of framing the Constitution of India. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution, which aimed to declare India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and create a Constitution to govern its future. The Resolution established general principles to guide the work of the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Draft Constitution was presented to the Constituent Assembly on 4 November 1948, by B.R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.62 Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: UPSC 2023

Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Constitution Day also known as 'Samvidhan Divas', is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constituent Assembly of India first met on the 9 December, 1946 and continued till 24 January, 1950. On 29 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly had set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. This collection has rich treasured debates. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.63 By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India? NDA 2023

A. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act.

B. The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act.

C. The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act.

D. The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act.

Answer: A

Article 51A was not a part of the Constitution of India 1950. It was inserted by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, and subsequently amended by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002. Hence option A is correct.
Fundamental duties: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India—

(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Q.64 Which one of the following statements is correct? UPSC 2013

In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the state just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.
In the cases a Union Territory having a legislative setup the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

Answer: C

Normally, each state has its governor, but the 7th constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 made it easier to appoint the same individual to serve as governor of two or more states. Hence statement A is incorrect.
The Chief Justice and Judges of the High Courts are to be appointed by the President under clause (1) of Article 217 of the Constitution. Hence statement B is incorrect.
No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post. Hence statement C is correct.
Section 45 in the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 states that the Chief Minister must be appointed by the President. Hence statement D is incorrect.

Q.65 Which one of the following is not enumerated, in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of India? CDS 2019

To safeguard public property
To protect and improve the natural environment
To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
To promote international peace and security

Answer: D

Fundamental duties: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India—

(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;

(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Article 51 of the Constitution which is a Directive Principle of State Policy directs the state to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations. It further directs the state to respect International law and treaty obligations and settle disputes peacefully. Hence option D is incorrect.

Q.66 Consider the following statements? UPSC 2013

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by and introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The Bill must then be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
An amendment to the constitution of India is introduced as a bill in the Parliament. It then must be approved by both the houses of Parliament. The amendments must then be ratified by the legislatures of at least one half of the states (not all the states). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.67 Who among the following considered the Directive Principles of State Policy as aiming at ‘furthering the goals of social exclusion’ ? CDS 2021

A. A. N. Rau

B. Granville Austin

C. K.C. Wheare

D. Rajni Kothari

Answer: B

The Directive Principles of State Policy are embedded in Part IV of the Indian Constitution starting from Articles 36 to Article 51. The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937 which interestingly has borrowed itself from Spanish Constitution.
Granville Austin combinedly defines Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy as “Conscience of the Constitution”. B.R. Ambedkar defines them as ‘novel features’ of the Constitution as although ideas are being borrowed but the deriving force for the Constitution is novel in its own sense.
The Directive Principles of State Policy, when combined with Fundamental Rights, inscribe the philosophy of the Constitution and are the Soul of the Constitution. Hence option B is correct.

Q.68 Who among the following are entitled to get the benefits of equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws as enshrined under Article 14 of the Constitution of India? CAPF 2017

All Indian citizens living in India
All Indian citizens living abroad
Foreigners living within the territory of India
All citizens born in India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2,3 and 4 only

C.1,2 and 3 only

D. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: C

Article 14 basically states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”.
To treat all citizens equally is the basic concept of liberalism and Article 14 ensures the same to our citizens. The liberty of any person is directly connected to the equality he/she is getting in society.
Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. This provision confers rights on all persons whether citizens or foreigners.
According to this principle, everybody who resides in India should be treated equally and will get equal protection of the law. It guarantees all people inside the territory of India should be treated equally and the state cannot deny it (for equal protection of the law). Hence statement 1,2 and 3 are correct.
The Supreme Court held that where equals and unequals are treated differently, Article 14 does not apply. While Article 14 forbids class legislation, it permits reasonable classification of persons, objects and transactions by the law. But the classification should not be arbitrary, artificial or evasive. Rather, it should be based on an intelligible differential and substantial distinction.

Q.69 Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? UPSC 2014

Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

The Cabinet Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the Government of India.
The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.
The administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
Works under the direct charge of the Prime Minister.
He is responsible for the administration of the Transaction and Business rules and Allocation of business rules.
He ensures that the President, Vice President and Ministries are kept informed of the major activities of all Ministries/Departments by means of a monthly Summary of their Activities.
Manage the major crises in the country and Coordinate activities of various Ministries in such a situation.
Provide Secretarial Assistance:
Convening of the meetings of the cabinet on the orders of the Prime Minister.
- Preparation and Circulation of the agenda.
- Preparing a record of discussions taken.
- Circulation of the record after obtaining the approval of the Prime Minister.
- Watching implementation of the decisions taken by the Cabinet.
- Custodian of the papers of the Cabinet meetings
Acts as the chief coordinator of the central government
Chairman of the Civil Services Board, which recommends the empanelment of officers (except officers under the Ministry of External Affairs), for the ranks of secretary, additional secretary and joint secretary.
Chairman of the Conference of Chief Secretaries of States.
Recommends postings of officers (except officers under the Ministry of External Affairs) of the rank of secretary and additional Secretary to the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
Acts as a senior adviser to the Prime Minister.
Assist the Council of Ministers.
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.70 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2014

A Constitutional Government is one which

places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government conducted according to rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors, and which therefore help to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or dividing it. A Constitutional Government places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty, and not on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.71 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2014

The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Article 77 in The Constitution of India 1949-
The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the President shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the President, and the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall nor be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the President.
All executive actions and functions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.72 Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? UPSC 2013

National Development Council
Planning Commission
Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

The Constitution of India does not mention the National Development Council, Planning Commission or Zonal Councils. These are all bodies that were created by the government through acts of Parliament or executive orders.
National Development Council was set up in the year 1952. It is an apex body for decision making and deliberations on development matters, presided over by the Prime Minister of India and comprising of Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the States and UTs, Administrators of Union Territories and Members of Planning Commission.
The Planning Commission was set up in pursuance of declared objectives of the government to promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient exploitation of the resources of the country, increasing production and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community. Detailed information about planning for development in various sectors such as agriculture, education, employment, environment and forests, health, urban affairs, industry and rural places etc. is provided.
Zonal Councils are advisory councils and are made up of the states of India that have been grouped into five zones to foster cooperation among them. These were set up vide Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
The Union Home Minister is the common chairman of five zonal councils. Each chief minister acts as a vice chairman of the council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Hence all the statements are correct.

Q.73 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. Only three

D. None of the above

Answer: A

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has the responsibility to protect States from internal disturbances. This is outlined in Article 355 of the Constitution, which states that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbances. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution of India does not specifically exempt the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. The right to legal counsel is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 22 of the Constitution, which applies to all persons, including those subjected to preventive detention. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, has been repealed and is no longer in force. It was replaced by the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. The admissibility of confessions made to the police as evidence is determined by the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and other relevant laws, not specifically by the Prevention of Terrorism Act. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

Q.74 Consider the following events : NDA 2022

Establishment of the Planning Commission
Formation of the National Development Council (NDC)
Approval of the First Five-Year Plan by the NDC
Constitution of the National Planning Committee

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above events?

A. 1-2-3-4

B. 2-1-3-4

C. 4-1-2-3

D. 1-4-2-3

Answer: C

The National Planning Committee was established in October 1938 by Subash Chandra Bose, who was then the president of the Indian National Congress. Its main objective was to focus on the development of industries in India. The Committee was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru from Prayagraj.
After India achieved independence, a formal model of planning was adopted, and accordingly the Planning Commission, reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India, was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the Chairman.
NDC- It was set up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Five Year Plans made by Planning Commission, to promote common economic policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
The first five-year plan is the only five-year plan adopted without the consent of the National Development Council. The first meeting of the NDC was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru in November 1952.
Hence option C is correct.

Q.75 Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India has to be laid before the Parliament in respect of every financial year? CDS 2019

A. Article 110

B. Article 111

C. Article 112

D. Article 113

Answer: C

Article 112 of the Indian Constitution talks about the financial aspects of the country. It lays down the measures to keep a check and balance on the prominent funds of the Indian Government.
Article 112 of the Constitution the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, referred to as the “annual financial statement’’.
Receipt and disbursements are shown under three parts in which government accounts are kept, viz. (i) Consolidated Fund, (ii) Contingency Fund, and (iii) Public Account.

Q.76 Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: UPSC 2014

There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2

Answer: C

A No-Confidence Motion in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament, is a significant parliamentary procedure that allows members to express a lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers, commonly known as the government, led by the Prime Minister.
The procedure for moving the No Confidence resolution is outlined in Lok Sabha Rule 198. The Indian Constitution lacks an Article for a Motion of Confidence or No Confidence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, says that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, says that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Any member of the Lok Sabha can submita No-Confidence Motion in writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
The Speaker examines the motion to ensure that it complies with the procedural requirements. If the Speaker finds the motion in order, it is admitted for discussion.
The Speaker allocates time for the discussionon the No-Confidence Motion. Generally, the discussion takes place after ten days of its admission, allowing for adequate notice to the government.
During the debate, members of the Lok Sabha discuss the reasons for expressing a lack of confidence in the government. The Prime Minister or a representative from the government has the right to reply to the motion. After the debate, a vote is conducted.
For the motion to succeed, it must be passed by a simple majorityin the Lok Sabha. In other words, more members should vote in favour of the motion than against it.
If the No-Confidence Motion is passed, it indicates that the government has lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha. In such a scenario, the Prime Minister and the entire Council of Ministers are required to resign.
Following the resignation of the Council of Ministers, the President, as the head of state, may invite the leader of the opposition or any other member who can demonstrate majority support to form the new government.
Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.77 With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements: UPSC 2015

It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
It wanted to establish the dictatorship to the proletariat.
It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1,2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. None of the above

Answer: D

The Congress Socialist Party, established to promote a combination of nationalist ideas and egalitarian social and political philosophy, emerged as a powerful force in the Indian freedom struggle in the 1930s.
Political activists from the Krishna district in Andhra Pradesh also participated in the activities of theParty. Political movements of the ryots and the peasantry had been a powerful driving force in the nationalist movement in the Andhra region.
Prominent leaders such as N.G. Ranga and Pattabhi Sitaramayya were also actively involved in the peasant movements, and sought to incorporate them into the mainstream of the freedom struggle.
It was against this background that the Congress Socialist Party was established in the Krishna district. On 7th September 1936, the Congress Socialist Party Conference was held in the district, under the leadership of Inturi Venkateswara Rao.
The members of the party aimed to widen the scope and the base of nationalist activities by incorporating the peasants into the freedom struggle.
The Congress Socialist Party in the Krishna district played a significant role in the progress of the freedom struggle through its activities.
Hence all the statements are incorrect.

Q.78 Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State policy: UPSC 2015

The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) has been taken from the Irish constitution and enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
The concept behind the DPSP is to create a ‘Welfare State’. In other words, the motive behind the inclusion of DPSP is not establishing political democracy rather, it’s about establishing social and economic democracy in the state.
These are some basic principles or instructions or guidelines for the government while formulating laws/policies of the country and in executing them.
According to Dr B R Ambedkar, these principles are ‘novel features’ of the Constitution. DPSP acts as a guideline for the state and should be taken into consideration while coming up with some new policy or any law.
But no one can compel the State to consider and follow all that which is mentioned in DPSP, as DPSP is not justiciable.
Hence both the statements are correct.

Q.79 With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? UPSC 2015

It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Finance Commission is a constitutional body; it is formed by the President of India to give recommendations on centre-state financial relations.
15th Finance Commission headed by N. K. Singh.
The share of states in the central taxes is recommended to be 41%.
This is less than the 42% share recommended by the 14th Finance Commission. Fourteenth Finance Commission has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The divisible pool is that portion of gross tax revenue which is distributed between the Centre and the States. The divisible pool consists of all taxes, except surcharges and cess levied for specific purpose, net of collection charges. There was no recommendation concerning sector specific grants. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
READ: https://www.iasgyan.in/daily-current-affairs/16th-finance-commission

Q.80 A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which? CSE 2020

A. all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

B. the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

C. the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them

D. the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by before completion of a fixed term

Answer: B

Parliamentary Form of Government; The parliamentary system is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive organs while the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs.
The features of parliamentary government in India are
Presence of nominal and real executives
Majority party rule
Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
Membership of the ministers in the legislature
The leadership of the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister
Dissolution of the Lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).

Q.81 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2015

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

The President must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age, and qualified for election as member of the Lok Sabha. His term of office is five years, and he is eligible for re-election. His removal from office is to be in accordance with procedure prescribed in Article 61 of the Constitution.
Executive power of the Union is vested in the President, and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him. The President summons, prorogues, addresses, sends messages to Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha, promulgates Ordinances at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, makes recommendations for introducing financial and money bills and gives assent to bills, grants pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or suspends, and remits or commutes sentences in certain cases.
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Q.82 Which one of the following powers has not been conferred on the President of India? CAPF 2021

A. Appointment of Prime Minister

B. To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament

C. To grant pardon to a person who has been punished by a court-martial

D. To remove a Judge of the High Court

Answer: B

Article 75 mentions the following provisions: The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Hence option B is incorrect.

Q.83 Consider the following statements: UPSC 2017

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

legislative function.
executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Directive Principle of State Policy
These lay down that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order, in which justice-social, economic and political-shall form in all institutions of national life.
The Directive Principles of State Policy does not constitute limitations upon legislative function and executive function. Fundamental rights act as limitations on the legislative and executive functions. Hence both statements are incorrect.

Q.84 Which of the following statements are correct ? CDS 2021

Speaker may permit any Member to address the House in his/her mother tongue, if he/she cannot adequately express in either Hindi or English.
Business of the Parliamentary Committees is transacted either in Hindi or in English.
The minutes of the Parliamentary Committees are prepared invariably in Hindi and English.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1,2 and 3

Answer: D

Article 120: Language to be used in Parliament -
Notwithstanding anything in part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English:
Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct.
In Parliament business shall be transacted in Hindi or English: Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or the Speaker of the House of the People, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in either language to address the House in his mother tongue Hence statement 2 is correct.
The minutes and reports of the Parliamentary Committees are invariably prepared and presented to the House both in Hindi and in English. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q.85 With reference to India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2022

Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Government law officers and legal firms and Corporate Lawyers, as well as patent attorneys, are too recognized as lawyers and there’s no prohibition on their recognition as lawyers. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils. The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under section 4 of the Advocates Act 1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal education in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.86 Which one of the following statements about the Solicitor General of India (SGI) is not correct? CDS 2023

A. The SGI is not the Government's chief legal advisor

B. The SGI is the secondary law officer of the country.

C. The post of the SGI is a constitutional post.

D. The SGI is appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.

Answer: C

The Solicitor General of India (SGI) is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. The SGI is the second-highest law officer of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is assisted by Additional Solicitor Generals of India (Addl. SGIs).
The SGI and the Addl. SGIs advise the Government and appear on behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1972.
However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General are merely statutory. Hence option C is incorrect.
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) recommends the appointment and officially appoints the Solicitor General. The proposal for appointment of Solicitor General, Additional Solicitor General is generally moved at the level of Joint secretary (or Law Secretary) in the Department of Legal Affairs and after obtaining the approval of the Minister of Law & Justice, the proposal goes to the ACC and then to the president.

Q.87 Consider the following statements: CDS 2019

The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendations of the Governor of the concerned State.
As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Article 165: Advocate General for the State
The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.88 Consider the following statements : UPSC 2022

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: D

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The 24th Amendment of the Indian Constitution amended Article 368 to provide expressly that Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the Constitution. The amendment further made it obligatory for the President to give his assent when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him.
Article 368 of the Indian constitution requires that the constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority(special majority). In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament. The reasoning behind this is so as to not let the running government’s majority in Lok Sabha undermine the Rajya Sabha in a joint sitting. Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.89 Consider the following statements : UPSC 2022

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government/including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Article 74 provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. The constitution does not classify the ministers into ranks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The 91st Amendment to the Constitution came into force on July 7, 2004. As per the amendment, the size of ministerial councils at the Centre and in the states could not exceed 15% of the number of members of the Lok Sabha or state legislatures from then on. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Article 75 and Article 164 of the Indian Constitution were amended to include two additional clauses (1-A) and (1-B). The new Clause (1-A) limits the size of the centre and state ministries. As per new Clause (1-A), the number of total ministers in the Central Council including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the Lok Sabha’s total members.

Q.90 Consider the following quote :

"On the 26th January, 1950, we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality."

To whom among the following leaders is this quote attributed? CAPF 2021

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. B. R. Ambedkar

D. Somnath Lahiri

Answer: C

One of the most important critiques of the resolutions of the Constituent Assembly, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, registered his dissatisfaction with its constituent members (and defenders of private property) in their distancing from the term ‘socialism’. He declared, “On the 26th January, 1950, we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality, and in social and economic life, we will have inequality.” Hence option C is correct.
India’s case is not unique. Throughout the 21st century, most countries across the world have been reorganising their economies in order to make way for liberal markets, and the ‘welfare state’ of the 1950s in most of the developed and developing world has dissipated in the face of powerful market economies.
In countries such as the United States, with nearly inaccessible and privatised healthcare, and few unemployment benefits, there has been very little cushioning the ordinary citizen against the forceful swings of the market.

Q.91 Consider the following statements about the President of India: CDS 2016

The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.
The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.
All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: D

Under Article 78:
The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.
It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister—
(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation;
(b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for; and
(c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.
Hence all statement are correct.

Q.92 Which one of the following services of India Post has permanently been discontinued? CDS 2016

Money Order
Telegram
Postal Life Insurance
Inland Letter

Answer: B

The harbinger of good and bad news for generations of Indian people, the telegram service of India Post, was closed forever in 2013. It was one of the fastest means of communication for millions of people of that time. It was started in 1850 on an experimental basis between Kolkata and Diamond Harbour. Hence ooption B is correct.

Q.93 Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State ? CSE 2020

Directive Principles of State Policy

Fundamental Rights

Preamble

Seventh Schedule

Answer: A

A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. It is based on the principles of equality of opportunity, equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions for a good life.
Directive Principle of State Policy:
These lay down that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order, in which justice-social, economic and political-shall form in all institutions of national life. Hence option A is correct.

Q.94 Who among the following Prime Ministers of India was defeated by a vote of No Confidence? CDS 2016

Morarji Desai
Viswanath Pratap Singh
H.D. Deve Gowda
Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1,2,3 and 4

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1,2 and 3 only

Answer: A

A vote of no confidence, also variously called a motion of no confidence, no-confidence motion, motion of confidence, or vote of confidence, is a statement or vote about whether a person in a position of responsibility like in government or management is still deemed fit to hold that position, such as because they are inadequate in some aspect, fail to carry out their obligations, or make decisions that other members feel to be detrimental.
The parliamentary motion demonstrates to the head of government that the elected parliament either has or no longer has confidence in one or more members of the appointed government. In some countries, a no-confidence motion being passed against an individual minister requires the minister to resign.
In most cases, if the minister in question is the premier, all other ministers must also resign.
B. Kripalani moved the first-ever no-confidence motion on the floor of the Lok Sabha in August 1963, immediately after the disastrous Sino-Indian War.
As of July 2019, 29 no-confidence motions have been moved. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi faced the most no-confidence motions, followed by Lal Bahadur Shastri and P. V. Narasimha Rao (three each), Morarji Desai and Narendra Modi (two each), and Jawaharlal Nehru, Rajiv Gandhi, V. P. Singh, H. D. Deve Gowda, and Atal Bihari Vajpayee.Vajpayee lost the no-confidence motion by a margin of one vote (269–270) in April 1999.
Prime Minister Desai resigned on 12 July 1979, V. P. Singh and H. D. Deve Gowda were also removed in no-confidence motion. The two most recent no-confidence motion were against the Narendra Modi government, in 2018 and in 2023.

Q.95 With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: UPSC 2023

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Answer: B

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary to the police in maintenance of internal security, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Fifteen Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Battalions have been raised in the border States viz. Punjab (6 Bns.), Rajasthan ( 4Bns.), Gujarat (2 Bns.) and one each Battalion for Meghalaya, Tripura and West Bengal to serve as an auxiliary to Border Security Force for preventing infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, guarding of VA/VPs and lines of communication in vulnerable area at the time of external aggression. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Hence option B is correct.

Q.96 Consider the following statements: CDS 2016

The President of India shall have the power to appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
The Speaker has to discharge the functions of his office himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections. Serving for a term of five years, the speaker is chosen from sitting members of the Lok Sabha.
Speaker can be removed by the Lok Sabha by a resolution passed by effective majority of the house as per Constitution of India[Articles 94]. The Speaker is also removed on being disqualified for being Lok Sabha member under sections 7 and 8 of Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House.
In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
He also presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Q.97 The Electoral College for electing the President of India does not include which of the following? CAPF 2021

All elected members of the Rajya Sabha
All elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States
All members of the Legislative Councils of States

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: C

Part V of the Indian Constitution precisely deals with the Union executive from Articles 52 to 78.
The President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and Attorney General of India constitute the Union executive.
He is India's first citizen and symbolises the country's unity, integrity, and solidarity.
The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
Elected members of the two Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States.
It includes the national capital territory of Delhi and the Union territory of Pondicherry.
The President‘s election is held under a system of proportional representation through a single transferable vote.
Hence only statement 3 is correct.

Q.98 As per the Constitution of India, the Writ of Prohibition relates to an order: CDS 2016

issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authority.
to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try.
to restrain a person from holding a public office to which he is not entitled.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

A writ petition can be termed as a formal written order issued by a judicial authority who possesses the authority to do so.
Fundamentally, a writ is a formal written order issued by anybody, executive or judicial, authorised to do so. In modern times, this body is generally judicial. Therefore, a writ can be understood as a formal written order issued by a Court having authority to issue such an order.
Orders, warrants, directions, summons etc. are all essentially writs. A writ petition is an application filed before the competent Court requesting it to issue a specific writ.
Both the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be approached for violation or enactment of fundamental rights through five kinds of writs:
Habeas corpus (related to personal liberty in cases of illegal detentions and wrongful arrests)
Mandamus — directing public officials, governments, courts to perform a statutory duty;
Quo warranto — to show by what warrant is a person holding public office;
Prohibition — directing judicial or quasi-judicial authorities to stop proceedings which it has no jurisdiction for; and
Certiorari — re-examination of an order given by judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative authorities.
Hence only statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.99 With reference to India, consider the following statements: UPSC 2021

Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In former, the accused is lodged in police station lockup while in latter, it is the jail. It means that the person will be kept in prison on the order of the relevant magistrate. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case may interrogate the suspect but with prior permission from the magistrate. In the case of police custody, the police officer can interrogate the suspect but must produce him before the court within 24 hours. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.100 Which one of the following is not a part of Article 51 of the Constitution of India? CDS 2023

A. Promote international peace and security.

B. Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

C. Use of UN peacekeeping force for resolution of international disputes

D. Encourage settlement of inter- national disputes by arbitration.

Answer: C

Article 51 in The Constitution of India 1949
Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to
(a) promote international peace and security;
(b) maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
(c) foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration PART IVA FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
Hence option C is correct.

INDIAN POLITY PYQ

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