How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Alternative powertrains—These are powertrains that are not based exclusively on the internal combustion engine. The main options include hybrids and plug-in hybrids, full battery electrics, and hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
Statement 1 is correct. BEVs run solely on electricity stored in batteries and use electric motors for propulsion. They produce zero tailpipe emissions and are a major category under alternative powertrains.
Statement 2 is correct. FCEVs use a hydrogen fuel cell to generate electricity, which powers an electric motor. These vehicles are powered by hydrogen, not fossil fuels, and are also classified as alternative powertrain vehicles due to their zero-emission profile.
Statement 3 is correct. These are hybrid vehicles that combine a hydrogen fuel cell with an auxiliary power source like a battery or internal combustion engine. Since they use hydrogen-based propulsion as a primary source, they are also considered alternative powertrain vehicles.
All 3 types (statements 1, 2, and 3) are correct. Hence, the number of alternative powertrain vehicles is 3.
1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) Non
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1: All types of UAVs can do vertical landing is incorrect
Only VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) UAVs — like multirotors and some hybrid fixed-wing drones — can perform vertical landings.
Fixed-wing UAVs typically require a runway or catapult-based landing, and cannot perform vertical landings.
Example of UAVs that can do vertical landing:
Example of UAVs that cannot do vertical landing:
Statement 2: All types of UAVs do automated hovering is incorrect
UAVs that can hover:
UAVs that cannot hover:
Statement 3: All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power is incorrect
Battery-powered UAVs:
Non-battery-powered UAVs:
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All
Answer: C
Explanation:
In electric vehicle batteries, three out of the four elements listed (cobalt, graphite, lithium, nickel) make up the cathode material: lithium, cobalt, and nickel. Lithium-nickel-manganese-cobalt oxide (NMC) batteries are common, using nickel, manganese, and cobalt in the cathode. Graphite is typically used in the anode.
Lithium, cobalt, and nickel: are key components of the cathode material, which is the positive electrode in a lithium-ion battery.
Graphite: is primarily used in the anode, which is the negative electrode.
NMC (lithium-nickel-manganese-cobalt oxide) batteries: are a common type of EV battery, using a combination of nickel, manganese, and cobalt in their cathode.
The cathode material: determines the overall energy density and performance of the battery.
https://www.aquametals.com/recyclopedia/lithium-ion-anode-and-cathode-materials/#:~:text=Cathode%20active%20materials%20(CAM)%20are,oxide%20(LiNiMnCoO2%20or%20NMC).
Q4. Consider the following substances:
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (a mixture of CO, H₂, and CO₂). This syngas can then be used as a feedstock to produce various chemicals and fuels.
Ethanol can be synthesized indirectly from syngas via fermentation or catalytic conversion, particularly using processes like the thermochemical route or Fischer–Tropsch synthesis. Hence, coal gasification can contribute to ethanol production.
Urea is produced from ammonia and CO₂. Ammonia is synthesized using hydrogen (from syngas) and nitrogen (from air), and syngas from coal gasificationi s a major hydrogen source in this process. Therefore, coal gasification can be a starting point for urea production.
Nitroglycerine is made by nitrating glycerol (a byproduct of biodiesel or soap production). Its production is not related to coal gasification or syngas pathways.
(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer: B
Explanation:
CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all explosive compounds, with CL-20 and HMX being high-energy explosives and LLM-105 being an insensitive explosive. CL-20 is known for its high energy density and is used in propellants and explosives. HMX, also known as octogen, is another powerful explosive used in various applications. LLM-105, or 2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide, is used in co-particle formulations to enhance safety and improve energy performance.
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Microsoft introduced Majorana 1, the world’s first quantum chip powered by a new Topological Core architecture that it expects will realize quantum computers capable of solving meaningful, industrial-scale problems in years, not decades.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Microsoft launched it.
Statement 3 is correct: Deep learning is a subset of machine learning (a subset of artificial intelligence). Unlike ML, deep learning uses neural networks for self-training.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Monoclonal antibodies are lab-engineered proteins designed to bind specifically to a particular antigen. They are produced by cloning a unique white blood cell and are identical copies of a single antibody.
Statement 2 is correct: mAbs target specific antigens on pathogens or abnormal cells (like cancer). Their binding can neutralize pathogens, mark cells for destruction by other immune cells, or block disease pathways. This activates or modulates the immune response.
Statement 3 is correct: Experimental monoclonal antibodies have been developed to treat Nipah virus infections. Example: m102.4, a monoclonal antibody targeting the Nipah virus glycoprotein, has shown promise in preclinical studies and was used on a compassionate basis in past outbreaks.
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Viruses not only survive but thrive in ocean water. Marine environments contain vast numbers of viruses, especially bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria). It’s estimated that millions of viruses exist per milliliter of seawater.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are widely studied in genetics and biotechnology and play a key role in microbial ecology.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Viruses often hijack and alter the host cell's transcription machinery to replicate themselves. Some viruses shut down host gene expression, while others upregulate specific genes to favor their own replication.
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: To remove inorganic and organic pollutants, and colors from effluent streams, activated carbon is used to remediate contaminants from various industries, including fertilizer plants, vehicles, petroleum, pharmaceutics, cosmetics, and textiles.
Statement 2 is correct: Activated carbon is a promising materials which has been extensively studied by several researchers. Activated carbon is a low-cost material with distinguishable properties like high specific surface area, high porosity, and desired surface functionalization. Because of that, activated carbon is diversely used for effective applications in adsorption, removal of pollutants, water treatment, and energy, etc
Statement 3 is correct: Activated carbon is produced from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Lignocellulosic and coal materials have been used as raw materials planned for manufacturing of activated carbons.
Statement 2 explains why activated carbon is effective (surface area and adsorption capacity). Statement 3 explains how it can be produced, reinforcing its attractiveness as a tool.
Both statements 2 and 3 are correct and explain the statement 1.
Statement I:
Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5%
of global carbon emissions.
Statement II:
Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III:
Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement I is correct
The cement industry is a major source of CO₂ emissions, contributing to more than 5% of global carbon dioxide emissions. These emissions come both from energy use (fossil fuel combustion) and from chemical decomposition of limestone (CaCO₃).
Statement II is correct but does not explain I
In cement production, silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone to form the raw mix. However, this mixing process itself does not release CO₂, so it does not explain the emissions mentioned in Statement I. This combination forms the raw mix for cement production. Limestone provides the calcium carbonate, while clay adds silica, alumina, and iron oxide. This blend is then finely ground and proportioned to create the raw mix for cement production.
Statement III is correct and explains I
During clinker production, limestone (CaCO₃) is heated and decomposes into lime (CaO) and CO₂.
CaCO₃→CaO+CO₂
This calcination process is the primary cause of carbon emissions in cement manufacturing, thus directly explaining Statement I.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III only
(c) I only
(d) I and II only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: GAGAN is a Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) developed by ISRO and AAI to augment GPS signals by providing corrections for ionospheric disturbances, satellite orbit errors, and clock inaccuracies. It enhances the accuracy, availability, and integrity of GPS signals, enabling reliable navigation for all phases of flight.
Statement 2 is correct: By improving positional accuracy and integrity, GAGAN facilitates better air traffic management (ATM), enabling more efficient and safer routing, approach, and landing procedures. It supports increased airport accessibility, reduces delays, and optimizes trajectories, thus improving overall ATM quality.
Statement 3 is incorrect: GAGAN benefits extend beyond aviation to other transportation sectors such as maritime navigation, highways, railways, and even forest management and scientific research. It enhances positioning accuracy for multiple applications, not limited to aviation.
Statement I:
Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors
Statement II:
Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Phosphorescent properties of rare earths (like europium, terbium, yttrium) are used in display technology.
These properties enable the use of REEs in screens, explaining their presence in TVs and monitors.
Europium and Yttrium (oxides) produce the red colors in television screens and smart phone screens. Eu, Y, and Tb are used in the manufacturing of phosphors ... flat-screen televisions, computer monitors, and electronic displays.
Statement 2 is correct: Rare earth phosphors have now been extensively used in color television screens, computer monitors, fluorescent lighting, and medical X-ray photography. Rare-earth elements occur in nature in combination with phosphate ; In their oxides, most rare-earth elements only have a valence of 3 and form sesquioxides.
Phosphors in optical displays contain yttrium, europium, and terbium oxides. The windshield, mirrors, and lenses are polished using cerium oxides.
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
All three missions encourage microgravity-related research, especially in life sciences, materials, and docking.
Statement 1 is correct: The Ax-4 mission will “realize the return” to human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation’s first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years. While Ax-4 marks these countries' second human spaceflight mission in history, it will be the first time all three nations will execute a mission on board the International Space Station.
Statement 2 is correct: SpaDeX mission is a cost-effective technology demonstrator mission for the demonstration of in-space docking using two small spacecraft launched by PSLV. This technology is essential for India's space ambitions such as Indian on Moon, sample return from the Moon, the building and operation of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS), etc. In-space docking technology is essential when multiple rocket launches are required to achieve common mission objectives. Through this mission, India is marching towards becoming the fourth country in the world to have space docking technology.
Statement 3 is correct: Gaganyaan Programme, ISRO envisages to undertake human spaceflight missions to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and to lay the foundation of technologies needed for an Indian human space exploration programme in the long run. The vision for space in the Amrit kaal envisages including other things, creation of an operational Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035 and Indian Crewed Lunar Mission by 2040.
(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is correct: Cloud seeding is undertaken by dispersing substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation or ice nuclei. Common agents include silver iodide, potassium iodide, and dry ice, with hygroscopic materials like table salt gaining popularity due to their ability to attract moisture. Techniques vary from static seeding, which encourages ice particle formation in supercooled clouds to increase precipitation, to dynamic seeding, designed to enhance convective cloud development through the release of latent heat.
Region Country
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mallorca, or Majorca, is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, and the seventh largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Normandy is a region in France, specifically located in the northwest of the country. It is one of the eighteen regions of France.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sardinia is part of Italy. It is an autonomous region of Italy, and the second largest island in the Mediterranean Sea.
Country Resource-rich in
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Botswana is the world's leading producer of diamonds by value and the second largest producer by volume, after Russia. The country's diamond mines, including Orapa, Jwaneng, and Letlhakane, contribute significantly to its economy, accounting for a large portion of exports and GDP.
Statement 2 is correct: Chile has the largest lithium resources, accounting for over one-third of the world's total reserves. Specifically, Chile holds an estimated 9.3 million metric tons of lithium reserves. The Salar de Atacama, a large salt flat in Chile, is a significant source of lithium and is part of the larger Lithium Triangle; a region of South America comprising Argentina, Chile and Bolivia.
Statement 3 is correct: Indonesia is currently the largest source of nickel, holding approximately 20.6% of global nickel reserves and producing 1.72 million metric tons in 2023. This makes Indonesia the leading producer of nickel from mines worldwide, with a substantial share of global nickel production.
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three
(d) Only two
Answer: B
Explanation:
This list ranks countries by total number of time zones on their territory, including dependent territories. France has the most time zones with 12 (including Antarctica claims).
|
Country |
No. of time zones |
|
United States |
11 |
|
New Zealand |
5 |
|
France |
12 |
|
Mexico |
4 |
|
Canada |
6 |
|
United Kingdom |
9 |
|
Brazil |
4 |
|
Denmark |
5 |
|
Antarctica |
10 |
|
Kiribati |
3 |
|
Indonesia |
3 |
|
Australia |
9 |
|
Russia |
11 |
Question is about more than 4 time zone, so Brazil with 4 not included as question asked specifically about more than 4.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Anadyr (Siberia, Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are close geographically but fall on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL).
Anadyr is in Russia’s Far East Time Zone (UTC+12).
Nome is in Alaska Standard Time (UTC−9).
So even though they are geographically near, the time difference is about 21 hours.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Anadyr is ahead of Nome in time (by 21 hours).
So, when it's Monday in Anadyr, it would still be Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday.
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: A
Explanation:
The International North South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multinational transport corridor that connects India to Russia via Iran and Azerbaijan, utilizing a multi-modal network of roads, railways, and sea routes. This 7,200 km route aims to enhance trade and transport connectivity, offering a shorter and more cost-effective alternative to traditional routes for transporting goods between these regions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Geological studies show that ancient rock formations along the eastern coast of South America (Brazil) closely correspond in type, age, and structure with those along the western coast of Africa. This matching of rock belts suggests these continents were once joined before drifting apart.
Statement 2 is correct: Rich placer gold deposits found in Ghana are believed to have originated from the Brazil plateau, indicating that these regions were once contiguous. The absence of local source rocks in Ghana and the similarity of gold-bearing veins in Brazil support this idea.
Statement 3 is correct: The distinctive Gondwana sedimentary deposits found in India have matching counterparts in Africa, Antarctica, Australia, South America, and Madagascar, indicating these landmasses were once part of the supercontinent Gondwana.
Statement I:
The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas
than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II:
Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Subtropical and temperate regions, especially those near deserts and arid zones such as the Sahara, Arabian Peninsula, Central Asia, and parts of the Middle East, have higher dust emissions due to dry soils and strong winds that lift dust into the atmosphere. In contrast, equatorial regions have dense vegetation and higher rainfall, which reduce dust emissions, and polar regions have ice and snow cover, limiting dust sources.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In fact, subtropical and temperate regions often experience strong dry winds, especially in desert and semi-arid zones, which are responsible for lifting and transporting dust particles. The presence of dry winds is a key factor contributing to the high dust content in these regions. Therefore, the claim that these areas have "less dry winds" is false.
Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The temperature over land is generally lower than over the oceans during winter in the Northern Hemisphere. The colder land causes the isotherms to bend towards the equator, while warmer oceans cause the isotherms to bend towards the poles.
Statement 2 is correct: Oceans have a higher heat capacity and cool down more slowly than land, so during the Northern Hemisphere winter, oceans remain relatively warmer compared to the land, which cools rapidly.
Because the air over the oceans is warmer, the isotherms bend poleward over the oceans to reflect the higher temperatures. Conversely, over the colder landmasses, isotherms bend equatorward, indicating lower temperatures. Thus, the difference in temperature between land and ocean in January causes the characteristic bending of isotherms described in Statement I.
Statement I:
In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II:
Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Chalk typically has high permeability due to its porous structure, allowing water to pass through easily. Clay, on the other hand, has very low permeability because its particles are tightly packed, restricting water flow.
Statement 2 is correct: Chalk is a porous sedimentary rock with interconnected pore spaces that can absorb and transmit water. Porosity in chalk can be quite high, often ranging from about 25% to 40%, and its pore structure allows water to flow through it.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Clay does have porosity, but its pores are extremely small and poorly connected, which makes it impermeable or very low in permeability. Saying clay is "not at all porous" is inaccurate; it is porous but effectively impermeable due to pore size and connectivity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Earth's atmosphere acts like a blanket, trapping heat through the natural greenhouse effect. Without this atmospheric layer, the Earth's surface would lose heat rapidly to space, causing average temperatures to plummet well below the freezing point of water. Estimates indicate the average surface temperature would be near -18°C (0°F) instead of the current average of about 15°C (59°F).
Statement 2 is correct: The atmosphere absorbs solar radiation and traps outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth's surface, maintaining a stable average temperature suitable for life. This process is the greenhouse effect, primarily driven by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. The balance between incoming solar energy and outgoing heat radiation determines Earth's energy budget and climate stability.
Statement 3 is correct: Carbon dioxide (CO2), along with water vapor and other greenhouse gases, absorbs infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and re-radiates some of it back to the surface, effectively trapping heat. Although CO2 makes up a small fraction of the atmosphere, its molecular structure allows it to absorb heat efficiently, contributing significantly to the greenhouse effect.
human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: c) Both I and II
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy had a deep appreciation for ancient Indian philosophical systems such as the Vedanta and Upanishads. He valued traditional Indian philosophy and promoted its rational aspects.
Statement 2 is correct: He championed rationalism, scientific temper and social equality, especially gender equality.
Additional Information
Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1772–1833), often hailed as the “Father of Modern India,” was a pioneering social and religious reformer of the Bengal Renaissance. Born in Radhanagar in Bengal, he was deeply influenced by Persian, Arabic, Sanskrit and later Western philosophy, which shaped his rational and progressive outlook. He vehemently opposed regressive social practices like Sati, child marriage and purdah and played a pivotal role in the abolition of Sati through sustained advocacy that influenced Lord William Bentinck’s 1829 regulation. Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828, promoting monotheism, social equality and rejection of idol worship and caste discrimination. A strong proponent of modern education, he established institutions like the Anglo-Hindu School and Vedanta College, advocating for science, reason and English education. His efforts also included championing women’s rights, especially inheritance rights and education. As a representative of Mughal Emperor Akbar II, he travelled to England to uphold reforms, where he died in 1833 in Bristol. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s legacy as a visionary reformer and bridge between Indian tradition and modernity remains foundational in India's socio-cultural evolution.
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: c) Only three
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Boycott of British law courts and foreign-made cloth was a major part of the Non-Cooperation Movement to weaken British economic and legal control.
Statement II is correct. The movement strongly emphasized strict non-violence, expecting participants to avoid any violent acts.
Statement III is incorrect. Instead of retaining British titles and honours quietly, people were encouraged to give them up entirely as a form of protest.
Statement IV is correct. The movement promoted the establishment of Panchayats to settle disputes locally, as an alternative to British institutions.
(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer: b)
Explanation
Araghatta, also known as the Persian wheel or Rehat, is a traditional water-lifting device widely used for irrigation in India and other regions. This mechanical system operates by animal power, typically bullocks or buffaloes, which rotate a wheel fitted with buckets or pots to lift water from wells. The name "Araghatta" derives from the Sanskrit words ara (spoke) and ghatta (pot), describing the wheel’s structure and water containers. Primarily employed to irrigate fields in areas with scarce water or low rainfall, Araghatta has historical roots dating back to medieval India. It is also an environmentally sustainable irrigation method, as it draws water mainly from the dynamic water table without excessive depletion.
(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman
Answer: a) Mahendravarman I
Explanation
Mahendravarman I, who ruled the Pallava kingdom from AD 600 to 630, is remembered as one of its greatest monarchs. He bore the title Vichitrachitta, meaning “unique” or “unconventional thoughts,” reflecting his innovative approach to governance and art. Mahendravarman was a pioneer in stone temple architecture, famously stating that temples should never again be built from perishable materials. Besides being a skilled ruler, he was also an accomplished artist, musician and writer. His famous Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana (The Delightful Play of Drunken Sport) showcases his literary talent and sharp wit. His contributions were further continued by his son Narashimhavarman I, also known as Gunabhara. Mahendravarman’s diverse interests and original ideas set him apart as a visionary leader in South Indian history.
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumaragupta I
(d) Skandagupta
Answer: b) Chandragupta II
Explanation
Fa-Hien (Faxian) was a Chinese Buddhist monk and disciple of Kumarajiya who traveled to India around 399 CE to 412 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Empire.
(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Answer: c) Rajendra I (Chola)
Explanation
In 1025 CE, the Chola Emperor Rajendra I launched a remarkable naval invasion against Srivijaya, a powerful maritime empire in Southeast Asia, leading to the downfall of the Sailendra Dynasty that ruled Srivijaya. This expedition was unprecedented in Indian history, as India traditionally maintained peaceful relations with Southeast Asian states.
Rajendra I’s campaign targeted several locations across present-day Indonesia and the Malay Peninsula, significantly expanding Chola influence beyond the Indian subcontinent. This military success also facilitated the growth of Tamil merchant guilds such as the Manigramam, Ayyavole and Ainnurruvar, strengthening commercial ties and Tamil presence in Southeast Asia.
Interestingly, this period coincided with the return journey of the Bengali Buddhist scholar Atiśa (c. 982–1054) from Sumatra to India and Tibet in 1025, reflecting the vibrant religious and cultural exchanges occurring across these regions.
|
Territorial Region |
River Flowing in the Region |
|
I. Asmaka |
Godavari |
|
II. Kamboja |
Vipas |
|
III. Avanti |
Mahanadi |
|
IV. Kosala |
Sarayu |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation
Pair I is correct.
Asmaka was located along the Godavari river.
Pair II is incorrect.
Kamboja was situated in the northwest region, far from the Vipas (Beas) river. The main river near Kamboja was not Vipas.
Pair III is incorrect.
Avanti was in the Malwa region, near rivers like Chambal and Narmada, not the Mahanadi.
Pair IV is correct.
Kosala was located along the Sarayu river.
Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.
Additional Information
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: c) Both I and II
Explanation
Statement I is correct: At the Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in 1920, the Congress adopted Swaraj (self-rule) as its goal to be achieved by all legitimate and peaceful means. This became the official objective during the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhi's leadership.
Statement II is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement was planned to be implemented in phases. Gandhi had proposed that civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes would be introduced only if Swaraj was not achieved within a year and if the government resorted to repression.
(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer: B
Explanation:
In 1930, Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement by breaking the Salt Law — a British monopoly on salt production. He undertook the historic Dandi March, walking 240 km from Sabarmati to Dandi, and on April 6, 1930, he picked up natural salt from the seashore, symbolically defying British rule. After this act, Gandhi and many others were arrested. During this time, Gandhi gave a bold and defiant statement: "Sedition has become my religion." He was emphasizing that resisting unjust colonial laws had become a sacred duty for him. Calling it his "religion" showed how deeply committed he was to non-violent civil disobedience. He was not afraid of punishment, and considered breaking such laws a moral responsibility.
(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Dancing Girl is one of the most iconic and remarkable discoveries from the Indus Valley site of Mohenjo-daro. It is a bronze statue about 10.5 cm tall. The figurine depicts a young girl in a dancing posture, wearing bangles on her arms and a confident, natural pose. It was made using the "lost-wax casting" technique, which shows the advanced metallurgical skills of the Harappans around 2500 BCE.
(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Chauri Chaura incident occurred in February 1922 in Uttar Pradesh, where a group of protesters participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement clashed with the police. The angry mob set fire to a police station, resulting in the death of 22 policemen. In response, Mahatma Gandhi immediately called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, as he believed the movement had taken a violent turn, which he could not support.
After the incident, the British government arrested many people involved. Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent freedom fighter, educationist, and lawyer, volunteered to provide legal defence for those accused. Krishna Kant assisted him in the defence effort.
(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement.
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Poona Pact was signed in 1932 between Gandhiji and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. It was related to separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (now Scheduled Castes) proposed in the Communal Award. Gandhiji strongly opposed the idea of separate electorates, fearing it would divide Hindu society. While in jail, he went on a fast unto death, and the resulting compromise was the Poona Pact. After this event, Gandhiji intensified his efforts for the upliftment of the Depressed Classes, whom he called Harijans (meaning "Children of God").
(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Self-Respect Movement was founded by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar. He was a prominent social reformer and activist who spearheaded the movement in Tamil Nadu. The movement aimed to dismantle the existing Hindu social order and create a new society free from caste, religion, and god, promoting a rational and egalitarian society,
(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore
Answer: d) Lahore
Explanation
Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (18 August 1872 – 21 August 1931) was a renowned Hindustani classical musician known for singing the original version of the bhajan Raghupati Raghava Raja Ram and for arranging India’s national song Vande Mātaram as it is heard today.
On 5 May 1901, Paluskar founded Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore — one of the first Indian classical music schools run on public support and donations, not royal patronage. The school was open to all and it challenged the traditional guru-shishya system where students lived with their teachers. Many early students went on to become prominent musicians and teachers, enhancing respect for musicians in society.
(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration
Answer: b) district-level administration
Explanation
Ashokan inscriptions highlight the importance of three key district-level officers in the Mauryan administration:
These officials were crucial for the effective governance of the Mauryan Empire, ensuring smooth administration and revenue collection at the grassroots level, as confirmed by Ashoka’s edicts.
|
Edict |
Ashokan Inscription Details |
|
Pillar Edict I |
Ashoka’s principle of protecting his people. |
|
Pillar Edict II |
Dhamma (moral law/ethical conduct). |
|
Pillar Edict III |
Avoidance of cruelty, sin, harshness, pride and anger among subjects. |
|
Pillar Edict IV |
Responsibilities of the Rajukas (rural officials). |
|
Pillar Edict V |
Lists of animals and birds that should not be killed on certain days; and those that should never be killed. |
|
Pillar Edict VI |
Dhamma policy of the State (state’s ethical governance). |
|
Pillar Edict VII |
Ashoka’s efforts to promote Dhamma and tolerance for all sects. |
|
Organization |
Some of its functions |
It works under |
|
I. Directorate of Enforcement |
Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 |
Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
|
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence |
Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 |
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
|
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management |
Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders |
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
Which of the above rows are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: b) Only two
Explanation
Directorate of Enforcement
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 243B(2) exempts States with populations below 20 lakh from mandatorily having intermediate-level Panchayats. States like Goa and Sikkim do not have them.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 243F covers disqualifications, State Panchayat Acts generally prescribe 21 years as the minimum age, aligned with Article 173 and electoral laws. This is widely followed across States.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 243I states that the Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission every five years to review the finances of Panchayats at all levels, not just intermediate.
Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 2(1)(o) includes all public servants under government or funded institutions, without geographic limitation. Those posted abroad (e.g., diplomats) are within Lokpal’s jurisdiction under Section 14.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 3(2)(a) allows the Chairperson to be a current/former CJI, Supreme Court Judge, or an eminent person. MPs/MLAs are barred (Section 4), but the eligibility is broader than just the CJI.
Statement 3 is correct: The applicant nominated must not be less than 45 years of age on the date of assuming office as the chairperson or member of Lokpal.
The chairperson and every member of Lokpal shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he or she enters his or her office or until he or she turns 75, whichever is earlier.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Section 14(1)(a) includes the Prime Minister, with restrictions in sensitive areas (e.g., security, foreign affairs), subject to full bench approval. Lokpal can inquire under specified conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court in cases like Maru Ram v. Union of India (1980) and Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of A.P. (2006) held that the President’s power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review. Courts can intervene if the pardon is exercised arbitrarily, mala fide, or violates constitutional values.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Though Article 72 is silent, Article 74(1) mandates that the President shall act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. This was reaffirmed in Maru Ram and Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 94, the Speaker continues in office even after the Lok Sabha is dissolved, until just before the first meeting of the newly elected House. This ensures administrative continuity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate that a Speaker resign from their party. It's a matter of convention, not a constitutional requirement.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 94(c), the Speaker can be removed by an absolute majority of Lok Sabha members, with 14 days’ prior notice.
Under what circumstances does the Speaker or Deputy Speaker vacate their office?
The Speaker or Deputy Speaker vacates their office if they cease to be a member of the Lok Sabha, resign by writing to the respective counterpart, or are removed by a resolution passed by the majority of Lok Sabha members.
What is the procedure for removing the Speaker or Deputy Speaker?
To remove the Speaker or Deputy Speaker, a resolution must be passed by a majority of all members of the Lok Sabha. A minimum of 14 days' notice must be provided before moving such a resolution.
Example
If a Speaker loses their Lok Sabha membership due to disqualification or resignation, their office is immediately vacated. Similarly, if a resolution with majority support is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Speaker or Deputy Speaker can be removed from their position.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Paragraph 6(1) of the 10th Schedule, disqualification for defection is decided by the Speaker (or Chairman), not the President. The President is involved only in Article 102 disqualifications, acting on the Election Commission’s advice — not the Council of Ministers. Hence, the statement misplaces both authority and process.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is mentioned in 10th schedule. The term “political party” appears multiple times in the 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment (1985). So, the Constitution does mention it — though not in its original 1950 text.
Links:
Constitution of India, 10th Schedule (Paragraph 6) and Article 103.
Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), AIR 1993 SC 412, which clarifies the Speaker’s role and judicial review under the 10th Schedule.
Introduction to the Constitution of India by D.D. Basu, covering the 10th Schedule and anti-defection provisions.
Text of the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, which introduced the term "political party" in the Constitution.
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments are empowered to make rules for regulating minor minerals, including granting leases and concessions. State governments do have the power to make rules for granting concessions for minor mineral extraction within their territories, as stipulated by the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
Power of State Governments to make rules in respect of minor minerals. – (1) The State Government may by notification in the Official Gazette make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith.
Statement 2 is correct: The central government has the power to notify “minor minerals” under section 3 (e) of the MMDR Act, 1957.
Links:
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, Sections 3(e) and 15.
State of Tamil Nadu v. Hind Stone (1981) 2 SCC 205, affirming State powers over minor minerals.
Amritlal Nathubhai Shah v. Union of India (1976) 4 SCC 108, clarifying the division of powers.
Ministry of Mines, Government of India, notifications under the MMDR Act for minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President can issue an Ordinance when Parliament is not in session and immediate legislative action is required. Ordinances have the same force and effect as a law passed by Parliament. Similarly, Governors can issue Ordinances under Article 213 for their respective states.
Statement 1 is correct: Since an Ordinance is equivalent to a Parliamentary law when in force, it can amend, repeal, or modify an existing Central Act. There is no legal restriction stopping an Ordinance from altering laws already passed by Parliament. In the past, the Indian Penal Code, Income Tax Act, and even the Banking Regulation Act have been amended via ordinances. However, this is subject to judicial review, and the Ordinance must comply with the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to, Article 13(2) of the Constitution: “The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part [Part III – Fundamental Rights]…” Ordinances are considered as ‘law’ under Article 13(3)(a). Therefore, they must not violate Fundamental Rights. If an Ordinance infringes or curtails a Fundamental Right, it can be declared unconstitutional by the courts. In R.C. Cooper v/s Union of India (1970) (Bank Nationalization case), the Supreme Court invalidated an Ordinance that violated the right to property (then a Fundamental Right). Ordinances cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.
Statement 3 is correct: Ordinances, like Parliamentary laws, can have retrospective effect, i.e., they can be made effective from a date prior to the date of promulgation. This is not prohibited under the Constitution. However, such retrospective operation must be clearly stated in the Ordinance and must not violate Fundamental Rights or cause injustice. Taxation ordinances or laws are often made retrospective to plug loopholes or clarify provisions.
State : Description
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Itanagar, the capital and largest town of Arunachal Pradesh, houses the Legislative Assembly, government, and Gauhati High Court permanent bench in Naharlagun. Itafort, ‘the fort of bricks’ from which the state capital derives its name, is situated in the heart of Itanagar. The fort has an irregular shape, built mainly with bricks dating back to the 14th-15th century of Mayapur of Ramachandra, a king of the Jitari Dynasty.
National Parks in Arunachal Pradesh:
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, was enacted after an agreement between the Government of India and the Naga Peoples Convention in 1960, establishing Naga Hills-Tuensang Area (Nagaland) as a separate state in the Union of India. The Act outlines the Governor's responsibility for law and order, general responsibility for government funds, and ten-year administration of the Tuensang District. A Regional Council will be formed for the Tuensang District, consisting of elected representatives from the tribes. Acts of Parliament will not apply to Nagaland unless decided by the Nagaland Legislature.
Nagaland became the 16th state of India on 1 December 1963, created through the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, and the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. Article 371A was inserted to provide special constitutional provisions for Nagaland due to its unique tribal culture and customs.
Statement 3 is correct: After independence, Tripura was classified as a Part ‘C’ State (administered by the President through a Chief Commissioner). With the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the classification of Part A, B, and C states was abolished. Tripura became a Union Territory (centrally administered) from 1956. It attained full statehood under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971, and officially became a state on 21 January 1972.
How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State Council (ISC) is a body established under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate coordination and collaboration between the Union and the States. It's a recommendation body that investigates and discusses matters of common interest, makes recommendations for better policy coordination, and deliberates on general interest issues as referred by the Chairman.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Security Council (NSC) is an executive government body tasked with advising the prime Minister on matters of national security and foreign policy. It was established by the former prime minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in November 1998, with Brajesh Mishra as the first National Security Advisor.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Zonal Councils are advisory bodies, established to promote cooperation and coordination between the Union government and the state governments, as well as between different states within a region. These councils are a mechanism for addressing issues of common interest, including economic and social planning, border disputes, and inter-state transport. They were created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and are divided into five zones: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both 1 and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 163(1) of the Constitution says "There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions in his discretion."
The Constitution explicitly uses the word “discretion” in regard to the Governor. In certain special cases, the Governor can act without the advice of the Council of Ministers (e.g., in recommending President’s Rule under Article 356, or reserving a bill for the President under Article 200).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 200 of the Constitution provides that when a bill is passed by a State Legislature, it must be presented to the Governor. The Governor then has several options:
There is no provision in the Constitution for the President to directly receive or act upon a bill from the State Legislature without the Governor's involvement. The President can consider a state bill only if it is reserved by the Governor. The President cannot suo motu (on their own) act on a bill passed by the State Legislature.
Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Directive Principles of the State Policy: Article 50 of the Constitution "The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State."
Statement 2 is correct: Fundamental Duties: Article 51A(f) under Part IVA – Fundamental Duties "It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture." This duty promotes national integration and respect for India's diverse traditions, encouraging every citizen to uphold cultural unity. Fundamental Duties added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental Rights: Article 24 under Part III – Fundamental Rights "No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment." It provides protection against child labor and ensures children are not exposed to harmful environments, enabling them to focus on education and growth.
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State in declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule, under Article 244(1) of the Constitution, outlines the framework for governing Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (which are covered under the Sixth Schedule).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the
administration of such areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Union Government does not take over the administration of Scheduled Areas. Its role is limited to giving directions to the state regarding administration, based on the Governor's reports.
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
The provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. If some states take no action on the bill, it does not matter; the moment half of the states give their consent, the formality is completed. There is no time limit within which the states should give their consent to the bill.
The following provisions can be amended in this way:
Amendments related to the conditions of the Governor's office (as outlined in Article 158) can be made by a simple majority of the Parliament. Specifically, Parliament can determine the Governor's emoluments, allowances, and privileges through a law passed by a simple majority.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 361(1) of the Indian Constitution: “The Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purported to be done by him in the exercise of those powers.” A Governor cannot be questioned in court for official actions taken during his/her tenure. This gives constitutional immunity to the Governor to function independently and protect the dignity of the office.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 361(2): “No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.” Absolute immunity from criminal prosecution during the term. Even pending proceedings are put on hold until their tenure ends.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 194(2): “No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature...”This ensures freedom of speech in the State Legislature. A member cannot be sued or prosecuted for statements made inside the House, even if they are controversial.
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: b) Only two
Explanation
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V
Answer: d) I, II and V
Explanation
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: b) II only
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. The mandate to submit the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) comes from SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Statement II is correct. The BRSR primarily requires companies to make non-financial disclosures, covering areas like environmental, social and governance (ESG) performance, sustainability, stakeholder relationships and responsible business practices.
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
Hence, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and explain why bondholders are at relatively lower risk (Statement I).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: a) I and II only
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. India’s equity options market has seen explosive growth, with a record 85 billion trades in 2023, accounting for 84% of all equity option contracts traded. This rapid expansion is causing concern among policymakers and regulators due to the dominance of risky short-dated contracts and the fact that retail investors now make up over 35% of options trades, despite 9 out of 10 individual traders incurring losses in the equity futures and options (F&O) segment.
Statement II is correct. India’s stock market has surpassed Hong Kong’s for the first time, reaching a combined market capitalization of $4.33 trillion compared to Hong Kong’s $4.29 trillion, making India the fourth-largest equity market globally. India’s market crossed the $4 trillion mark on December 5, with about half of the growth occurring in the last four years.
The surge is driven by a rapidly expanding retail investor base and strong corporate earnings. India is emerging as an attractive alternative to China, drawing significant global investment due to its stable political environment and a consumption-driven, fast-growing economy.
Statement III is incorrect. Regulatory bodies such as SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) actively regulate the securities market, warn investors about risks and take action against unregistered financial advisors.
Therefore, only Statements I and II are correct.
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: a) I and II only
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Capital receipts either create a liability (like borrowings) or reduce assets (like disinvestment).
Statement II is correct. Both borrowings and disinvestment are classified as capital receipts.
Statement III is incorrect. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt. It neither create a liability nor reduces the assets.
Hence, only Statements I and II are correct.
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Explanation:
About Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM):
Statement 1 is correct: The majority of indigenous cattle (which are low-yielding but well-adapted to Indian conditions) are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless laborers.
The mission helps these groups by:
Statement 2 is correct: The core objective of the mission is to:
The approach is holistic and sustainable, combining animal health, nutrition, and genetics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)
To determine which statements are correct, let's calculate the Revenue Deficit, Fiscal Deficit, and Primary Deficit based on the given data:
Step-by-Step Calculations:
○ Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
○ Revenue Deficit = ₹80,000 crores - ₹60,000 crores = ₹20,000 crores
○ Statement 1 (Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores) is correct.
○ Fiscal Deficit represents the total borrowing requirement of the government to meet its expenditure. It is typically calculated as:
■ Fiscal Deficit = (Revenue Expenditure + Capital Expenditure) - (Revenue Receipts + Non-Debt Capital Receipts)
■ However, the question only provides borrowings (₹10,000 crores), which often equals the Fiscal Deficit in simplified scenarios, as borrowings cover the gap between total expenditure and total receipts.
■ Without specific capital expenditure or non-debt capital receipts provided, we assume borrowings reflect the Fiscal Deficit.
○ Given Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores, Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores.
○ Statement 2 (Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores) is correct.
○ Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
○ Primary Deficit = ₹10,000 crores - ₹6,000 crores = ₹4,000 crores
○ Statement 3 (Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores) is correct
(a) Rs.48,500 crores
(b) Rs.51,500 crores
(c) Rs.58,500 crores
(d) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
To calculate the Gross Primary Deficit, we use the formula:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
Given Data:
Calculation:
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The 15th Finance Commission recommended a grant of ₹4,800 crores over four years (2022–23 to 2025–26) to incentivize states to improve educational outcomes. This grant is specifically aimed at supporting states in achieving better results in school education and is documented in the Commission’s official report.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% (not 45%) of the net proceeds of Union taxes be shared with states for the period 2021–26. This is a reduction from the 42% recommended by the 14th Finance Commission, with the 1% adjustment made to account for the creation of the Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
Statement 3 is correct: The Commission recommended a performance-based incentive grant of ₹45,000 crores for states to undertake agricultural sector reforms. This is clearly stated in the official Press Information Bureau (PIB) release and the Finance Commission’s own report.
Statement 4 is Correct: The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced the “tax effort” criterion in the horizontal devolution formula, assigning it a weight of 2.5%. This was done to reward states that make greater efforts to mobilize their own tax revenues, thereby encouraging fiscal responsibility and improved tax collection.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The IBRD, a part of the World Bank Group, primarily provides loans, credits, and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries to support development projects, policy reforms, and institutional strengthening. Its focus is on countries with per capita income levels that classify them as middle-income or low-income but with sufficient creditworthiness to borrow on non-concessional terms (unlike the International Development Association, IDA, which focuses on the poorest countries with concessional financing). The IBRD also offers risk management products like guarantees to attract private investment. This statement is accurate in emphasizing middle-income countries, though it omits low-income creditworthy countries, which is a minor oversight in the context of the statement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The IBRD’s mission is to reduce poverty and promote sustainable development in developing countries, but it does not work single-handedly. The IBRD collaborates with other World Bank Group institutions (e.g., IDA, IFC, MIGA), governments, private sector entities, civil society, and other multilateral organizations like the IMF, UN agencies, and regional development banks. It provides financing, technical assistance, and policy advice, often in partnership with these entities, to achieve its goals. The term “single handedly” implies that the IBRD operates alone, which is inaccurate given its collaborative approach.
Statement 3 is correct: The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, with its initial purpose being to provide financing for the reconstruction of Europe and other regions devastated by World War II. Its first loans were directed toward post-war reconstruction, particularly in European countries like France and the Netherlands. Over time, as Europe recovered, the IBRD shifted its focus to development in developing countries, but its original mandate was indeed reconstruction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous, while in NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions in real time, so settlement is instantaneous. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) settles transactions in half-hourly or batch intervals, so there is a delay in settlement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions, while that is not the case for NEFT. Banks do not charge customers for inward RTGS or NEFT transactions; charges, if any, are usually for outward transactions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days, while this is not true for NEFT. As per current guidelines, both RTGS and NEFT are available 24x7, 365 days a year, including weekends and bank holidays.
(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Building on ADB’s key initiatives as Climate Bank for Asia and the Pacific, ADB launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub, or NSFH, for the entire Asia and the Pacific. The NSFH is a platform combining an integrated set of activities—with innovative finance approaches—to scale up NBS projects and finance flows for a measurable impact in conserving biodiversity and ensuring climate resiliency.
Statement I:
At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.
Statement II:
The COP 28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III:
If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of the them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India refrained from signing the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, with sources pointing out that curbing greenhouse gas use for cooling in the health sector, which is one of the points in the document, may not be practical or achievable within the country's healthcare infrastructure in the short term.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding, non-negotiated call to action and collective commitment that reflects the concerns and common position of countries on the importance of health within climate discourse and in the COP process. It begins to articulate how climate-health is defined and how parties come together to address the urgent need for integrating climate and health.
The declaration is intended to serve as a call to action and joint vision from countries to convene and collaborate around, and can be taken forward to at the upcoming World Health Assembly and at future COPs. Endorsement of the declaration will be significant and symbolic in showing country consensus around the importance of integrating climate and health and the impact of climate change on human health.
Statement 3 is correct: It’s not practical for India to curb greenhouse gases for cooling in the health sector because vaccines, drugs etc require cold storage rooms. “We need cold storages for storing vaccines and medicines and these are linked to making our healthcare systems resilient,” Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests remarked, “However, suggestions that using these are contributing to climate emissions and that we must choose some fuels over the other are not acceptable.”
Statement I:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement enables international cooperation to tackle climate change and to unlock financial support for developing countries.
There are three components to Article 6:
Article 6.2: Provides accounting and reporting guidance for Parties to use internationally transferred mitigation outcomes towards their nationally determined contributions (NDCs).
Article 6.4: Establishes a new UNFCCC mechanism which can be used to trade high-quality carbon credits.
Article 6.8: Provides opportunities for non-market-based cooperation for enhancing climate action.
Article 6 deals with cooperative approaches, carbon markets, and non-market mechanisms—a complex and widely debated issue in climate negotiations, particularly at COPs. Hence, it is frequently discussed in global forums.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 6.2 and 6.4 specifically outline how international carbon markets can be used to meet Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). These allow for Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs) and a Sustainable Development Mechanism
Statement 3 is correct: Article 6.8 recognizes non-market approaches that support climate targets through capacity-building, finance, and technology transfer. These are intended to complement market mechanisms.
Statement I is explained by both II and III because: Article 6’s relevance (carbon markets and non-market strategies) is precisely why it's frequently discussed in global climate forums.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Peacock tarantula is a spider, an arachnid, not a crustacean. It is carnivorous, feeding on insects.
Statement 2 is correct: It is critically endangered and endemic to a small forest patch in Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct: It lives on trees (arboreal), constructing silken retreats in tree holes.
I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂ / capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per recent data (Global Carbon Atlas), India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are around 2 t CO₂, not less than 0.5.
Statement 2 is correct: India ranks second after China in the Asia-Pacific in CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion (IEA, 2023).
Statement 3 is correct: Major CO₂ emissions come from coal-based power plants and industrial heat processes.
Plant Description
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pair 1 is correct: Cassava is a perennial woody shrub, specifically belonging to the spurge family (Euphorbiaceae). It is native to South America and now cultivated globally in tropical and subtropical regions. Cassava is mainly known for its edible root, a starchy tuberous root that is a significant source of carbohydrates.
Pair 2 is correct:
Ginger is a herbaceous perennial plant with a unique structure featuring a pseudostem. Its leaves and stems are actually formed by overlapping leaf sheaths, creating a false stem that appears above ground. The true stem, a rhizome, is an underground horizontal stem that stores nutrients. This rhizome is what is commonly known as ginger root.
Pair 3 is correct:
Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a herbaceous, climbing plant. It is a perennial, meaning it can live for multiple years, and is often grown as an annual in colder climates. It's known for its fast growth and ability to climb, requiring a trellis or other support. Malabar spinach is a popular vegetable, especially in tropical and subtropical regions, and is known for its nutritional value and unique flavor.
Pair 4 is incorrect:
Mint is a plant in the Lamiaceae family, and while some species can be annual, it's more common for mint to be a perennial herb. Mints are known for their aromatic leaves, square stems, and ability to spread through underground or overground runners (stolons). They are often considered invasive due to their prolific growth.
Pair 5 is incorrect:
While papaya is often called a tree, it's more accurately described as a short-lived, succulent, herbaceous plant. It has a single, non-woody stem that can grow up to 30 feet tall, and it lacks the true bark of a woody tree. It's also a perennial, meaning it lives for more than two years.
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Scientists estimate that roughly half of the oxygen production on Earth comes from the ocean. The majority of this production is from oceanic plankton — drifting plants, algae, and some bacteria that can photosynthesize. One particular species, Prochlorococcus, is the smallest photosynthetic organism on Earth. But this little bacteria produces up to 20% of the oxygen in our entire biosphere. That’s a higher percentage than all of the tropical rainforests on land combined.
Statement 2 is correct: Phytoplankton contribute to nearly 50–80% of the global oxygen supply.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Oxygen content in air is much higher (21%) than in water (~0.001–0.008%).
Statement I:
In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II:
In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. Income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing is not fully exempt from tax. Such activities are considered non-agricultural income and are taxable unless specifically exempted.
Statement II is correct. Under the Income-tax Act, rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset, meaning capital gains tax does not apply on its sale.
Therefore, Statement II is correct, but Statement I is not correct.
Additional Information
Agricultural income is exempt from tax under the Income-tax Act, 1961. It includes income generated from activities carried out on agricultural land, such as rent earned from agricultural land, income from the production of agricultural goods that require processing before sale and income from growing and selling crops like tomatoes. However, income from allied activities like poultry farming or wool rearing is not considered agricultural income and is taxable. Additionally, while agricultural income is exempt from central income tax, many states impose their own agricultural income tax as per their respective policies. According to Section 2(1A) of the Income-tax Act, agricultural income covers rent from agricultural land, income from processed agricultural goods and revenue from selling agricultural produce grown on such land.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP), an international initiative to secure supply chains of critical minerals. India has become 14th member of the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023.
Statement II is incorrect. India does not have abundant resources for all 30 critical minerals it has identified; many critical minerals are imported due to scarcity or limited domestic availability.
Statement III is correct. In 2023, Parliament amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, giving the Central Government exclusive powers to auction leases for certain critical minerals to boost mining and strategic resource security.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Wet-bulb temperature of 35°C is considered the upper physiological limit of human survival, as the human body cannot cool itself by sweating.
Statement 2 is correct: It refers to broader climate events, partially directly to the physiological effects of wet-bulb temperature.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Muft Bijli Yojana (also known as PM Surya Ghar) aims to install solar rooftop panels in 1 crore residential households.
Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on February 15, 2024. Under the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs. The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of the solar panels. The scheme is expected to benefit 1 crore households across India. It is estimated that the scheme will save the government Rs. 75,000 crore per year in electricity costs.
Statement 2 is correct: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will provide training for technicians, installers, engineers, and other stakeholders like DISCOM and banking officials, as outlined in the skilling and capacity building guidelines issued in July 2024.
Statement 3 is correct: To create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building, out of which at least 1,00,000 will be Solar PV Technicians
Organization Union Ministry
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Automotive Board (NAB) operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Coir Board is a statutory body under the MSME Ministry, not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is a statutory body created under the PNGRB Act, 2006. It regulates the downstream oil and gas sector in India.
PNGRB does not regulate exploration or production, only distribution, marketing, pipelines, and storage of petroleum products and natural gas.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Production of crude oil is an upstream activity (exploration and drilling). It is managed by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) and the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH).
Statement 2 is correct: Refining, storage, and distribution of petroleum are downstream operations (after crude oil is extracted). PNGRB ensures fair access to infrastructure, safety, and standards in these areas.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Production of natural gas is also an upstream activity and handled by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) and the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH)
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
All three were introduced by the Portuguese to India during the 16th and 17th centuries.
Papaya: Native to tropical America (Mexico and Central America). Brought to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.
Pineapple: Native to South America (Brazil, Paraguay). Portuguese introduced it to India during their maritime explorations.
Guava: Also native to Central and South America. Introduced by the Portuguese in the same time frame.
Many other fruits and vegetables like potato, chili, tomato, papaya, pineapple, guava, and cashew were brought to India by the Portuguese.
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five
Answer: B
Explanation:
International merchant payments via UPI are enabled in UAE, France, and Singapore as of 2024–2025.
Bangladesh has remittance integration via NPCI, but not merchant payments.
|
Sr.No |
Country Name |
|
1 |
Bhutan |
|
2 |
France |
|
3 |
Mauritius |
|
4 |
Nepal |
|
5 |
Singapore |
|
6 |
Sri Lanka |
|
7 |
UAE |
Statement I:
Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II:
Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III:
Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Circular economy helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions by optimizing resource use and minimizing waste.
Statement II is correct. By recycling and reusing materials, circular economy reduces the need for raw material extraction.
Statement III is correct. Circular economy focuses on reducing waste during production through efficient resource management.
Both reduced raw materials use and minimized wastage lead to lower energy consumption and emissions, thereby explaining Statement I.
Additional Information
The circular economy is a system where materials never become waste and nature is regenerated. It keeps products and materials in circulation through processes such as maintenance, reuse, refurbishment, remanufacture, recycling and composting. This approach addresses climate change and other global challenges like biodiversity loss, waste and pollution by decoupling economic activity from the consumption of finite resources.
How many of them contain plastic?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cigarette Butts Contain Plastic
The filter of most cigarette butts is made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic. It does not biodegrade quickly and contributes significantly to plastic pollution.
Statement I:
Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement II:
Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III:
As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Days on Earth are growing slightly longer, and that change is accelerating. The reason is connected to the same mechanisms that also have caused the planet’s axis to meander by about 30 feet (10 meters) in the past 120 years. The findings come from two recent NASA-funded studies focused on how the climate-related redistribution of ice and water has affected Earth’s rotation.
Statement 2 is correct: Although solar flares, and associated coronal mass ejections, can bombard Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amounts of energy, most of that energy is reflected back into space by the Earth’s magnetic field. Because the energy does not reach our planet’s surface, it has no measurable influence on surface temperature.
Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do bombard the outer atmosphere, affecting communication, satellites, and sometimes auroras, but they do not cause Earth's axial shift.
Statement 3 is correct: This movement of water redistributes the Earth's mass, increasing the moment of inertia and slowing the planet's rotation, leading to slightly longer days. Scientists at ETH Zurich and other research groups have confirmed this effect.
This redistribution of mass towards the equator affects Earth’s moment of inertia and hence contributes to the shift in Earth’s axis of rotation. This directly supports Statement I.
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: DAC is a method that captures CO₂ directly from the atmosphere and either stores it underground (sequestration) or uses it industrially.
Statement 2 is correct: Captured CO₂ can be used as a feedstock for making chemicals, fuels, and even plastics. In food processing, CO₂ is used for carbonation and preservation.
Statement 3 is correct: Captured CO₂ can be reacted with green hydrogen to produce synthetic fuels (e-fuels), especially important for aviation decarbonization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC comprises seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
Statement 2 is incorrect: BIMSTEC was established on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, not the Dhaka Declaration of 1999.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The founding members in 1997 were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Nepal joined later in 2004.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Nepal leads the tourism sector among the various sectors of cooperation in BIMSTEC.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and includes:
The President of India is not a member of this jury.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The AI Action Summit took place on February 10-11, 2025, at the Grand Palais in Paris, co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, as confirmed by multiple sources, including the French Ministry for Europe and Foreign Affairs.
The Bletchley Park Summit (November 2023, UK) was the first global AI Safety Summit, resulting in the Bletchley Declaration, signed by 28 countries, focusing on AI safety and risks.
The Seoul Summit (May 2024, South Korea) built on Bletchley, emphasizing AI safety, innovation, and inclusivity, with the Seoul Declaration signed by 10 countries and the EU.
The Paris Summit aimed to advance prior discussions, focusing on actionable outcomes like sustainable AI and global governance. The French government stated that the event builds on the advances made at Bletchley Park and Seoul, aligning with its goals of establishing scientific foundations and standards for AI.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Paris AI Action Summit resulted in the "Statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet," signed by 58 countries, including France, China, and India, as noted in various sources like Down to Earth and the Élysée Palace.
However, the US and UK explicitly refused to sign this declaration. The Guardian reported that both nations declined due to concerns over the declaration’s lack of clarity on global AI governance and its impact on national security. The UK government stated it did not go far enough in addressing governance and security concerns, while US Vice President JD Vance criticized excessive regulation, reflecting a broader US stance on innovation over restriction.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pair I: International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026
The United Nations General Assembly has officially declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer. This initiative aims to recognise and promote the vital role of women in agriculture and food security worldwide.
Pair II: International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027
In February 2024, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. The year is intended to promote sustainable tourism practices that contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Pair III: International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025
The UN General Assembly declared 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This designation aims to foster peace and trust among nations and peoples, emphasizing the importance of dialogue and cooperation.
Pair IV: International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029
In December 2024, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. This observance aims to raise global awareness about the potential hazards of asteroids and the importance of planetary defense measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The 16th BRICS Summit took place in Kazan, Russian Federation, from October 22 to 24, 2024, under Russia's chairmanship. The summit focused on strengthening multilateralism for just global development and security.
Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia officially joined BRICS as a full member in January 2025, becoming the first Southeast Asian nation to do so. This expansion reflects BRICS's growing influence in the Global South.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The actual theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was "Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security." The term "multilateralism" emphasizes collaborative international relations, whereas "multiculturalism" pertains to cultural diversity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The first-ever Kho Kho World Cup was held from January 13 to 19, 2025, at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi, India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. The Indian men's team secured the championship by defeating Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Gukesh Dommaraju did not become the world's youngest winner at the 45th Chess Olympiad. While he played a significant role in India's gold medal victory at the Olympiad in Budapest, the event is a team competition, not an individual final. Gukesh became the youngest World Chess Champion by defeating China's Ding Liren in December 2024, not Ian Nepomniachtchi.
Statement 2 is correct: Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess prodigy, became the youngest Grandmaster in history at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days in June 2021.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) 1, II and III
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NRP targets a “future-ready” rail system by 2030, not 2028. The Plan is to create a 'future ready' Railway system by 2030. The NRP is aimed to formulate strategies based on both operational capacities and commercial policy initiatives to increase modal share of the Railways in freight to 45%.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kavach is an indigenously developed system, not in collaboration with Germany. Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. Kavach is a highly technology intensive system, which requires safety certification of highest order (SIL-4).
Kavach aids the Loco Pilot in running of train within specified speed limits by automatic application of brakes in case Loco Pilot fails to do so and also helps the trains to run safely during inclement weather
The first field trials on the passenger trains were started in February 2016. Based on the experience gained and Independent Safety Assessment of the system by Independent Safety Assessor (ISA), three firms were approved in 2018-19, for supply of Kavach Version 3.2.
Statement 3 is correct: Kavach uses RFID tags for train tracking. The "Kavach" train collision avoidance system in India utilizes RFID tags fitted on the track, particularly in station sections, to provide information to the locomotive's unit. These tags, along with unique Track Identification Numbers (TINs), help determine the direction of the train and contribute to the system's overall safety features.
Aircraft type : Description
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Dornier 228 Maritime Patrol Aircraft is a Short Take-Off and Landing (STOL).
It is a multirole light transport aircraft used by the Indian Navy for electronic warfare missions, maritime surveillance, and disaster relief systems and has been in production since 1981.
Statement 2 is incorrect: IL-76 is a medium-range military transport aircraft, also known by the Nato codename 'Candid'. IL-76 is produced by the Ilyushin Aviation Complex Joint Stock Company in Moscow. The IL-76 is a subsonic aircraft with a cruising speed of around 850 km/h, far below the supersonic threshold (Mach 1, ~1235 km/h at sea level). Supersonic combat aircraft in India’s fleet include the MiG-29, Su-30 MKI, and Rafale, which are fighter jets designed for air combat and capable of exceeding Mach 1.
Statement 3 is correct: The C-17 Globemaster III is a highly versatile military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force (IAF) to bolster its strategic airlift capabilities. The IAF currently operates 11 C-17s, with the last one being inducted in December 2016, according to EurAsian Times.
(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
The European Union (EU) has enacted the Nature Restoration Law to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss. This law aims to restore at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need by 2050.
The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a landmark piece of environmental legislation passed by the European Union (EU) in 2024. It is the first continent-wide law that sets legally binding targets for restoring degraded ecosystems in Europe to tackle biodiversity loss, enhance climate change resilience, and secure ecosystem services such as clean air, water, and food.
Statement I:
Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II:
Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA), the USA is the world's largest producer of ethanol, followed by Brazil.
Statement 2 is correct: The USA predominantly uses corn, while Brazil uses sugarcane for ethanol production due to climate and agricultural differences.
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six
Answer: B
Explanation:
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance of 32 countries from Europe and North America, established in 1949 to provide collective security against potential threats. It's a political and military alliance with the core principle that an attack on one member is considered an attack on all, triggering collective defence.
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Andes Mountains pass through the following seven South American countries:
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: D
Explanation:
|
Lake |
Location |
Position Relative to Equator |
Does the Equator Pass Through? |
|
Lake Tanganyika |
Central Africa (Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, Zambia) |
Mostly south of the Equator |
No |
|
Lake Tonlé Sap |
Cambodia, Southeast Asia |
Well north of the Equator |
No |
|
Patos Lagoon |
Southern Brazil |
Well south of the Equator |
No |
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric-producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India contributes about 80% of the global turmeric production and leads in exports.
Statement 2 is correct: India cultivates over 30 varieties across more than 20 states.
Statement 3 is correct: Maharashtra tops in production, followed by Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana (which has high productivity).
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